the nurse in the intensive care unit is giving a report to the nurse in the post surgical unit about a client who had a gastrectomy the most effective
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI Medical Surgical Exam

1. When giving a report about a client who had a gastrectomy from the intensive care unit to the post-surgical unit nurse, what is the most effective way to assure essential information is reported?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Using a printed checklist with individualized information is the most effective way to ensure that all key details about the client who had a gastrectomy are covered during the report. This method helps in structuring the information systematically, reducing the risk of missing important details. Face-to-face communication in a quiet room (Choice A) is important for effective communication but may not guarantee the coverage of all essential information. Audiotaping the report (Choice B) may not be practical for immediate reference or interaction. Documenting in the electronic health record (Choice D) is essential but may not facilitate a comprehensive real-time exchange of information between the nurses.

2. A nurse assesses a client who is recovering from a radical nephrectomy for renal cell carcinoma. The nurse notes that the client’s blood pressure has decreased from 134/90 to 100/56 mm Hg and urine output is 20 mL for this past hour. Which action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse should first fully assess the client for signs of volume depletion and shock, and then notify the provider. The radical nature of the surgery and the proximity of the surgery to the adrenal gland put the client at risk for hemorrhage and adrenal insufficiency. Hypotension is a clinical manifestation associated with both hemorrhage and adrenal insufficiency. Hypotension is particularly dangerous for the remaining kidney, which must receive adequate perfusion to function effectively. Re-positioning the client, measuring specific gravity, and administering pain medication would not provide data necessary to make an appropriate clinical decision, nor are they appropriate interventions at this time.

3. After checking the urinary drainage system for kinks in the tubing, the nurse determines that a client who has returned from the post-anesthesia care has a dark, concentrated urinary output of 54 ml for the last 2 hours. What priority nursing action should be implemented?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this situation, the nurse's priority action should be to report the findings to the surgeon. An adult should typically produce about 60 ml of urine per hour, so a dark, concentrated, and low urine output of 54 ml over 2 hours raises concerns. This change in urine output may indicate issues such as dehydration, renal problems, or inadequate fluid intake. Reporting this finding to the surgeon is crucial to ensure appropriate evaluation and intervention. Irrigating the catheter, applying manual pressure to the bladder, or increasing the IV flow rate are not appropriate actions based on the information provided and could potentially worsen the situation.

4. Which electrolyte imbalance is most likely to be seen in a patient with chronic kidney disease?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In chronic kidney disease, hyperkalemia is the most common electrolyte imbalance due to the kidneys' reduced ability to excrete potassium. This impaired kidney function leads to potassium retention in the body, resulting in elevated serum potassium levels. Hypernatremia (increased sodium levels) is less likely in chronic kidney disease as the kidneys typically still function to regulate sodium levels. Hypocalcemia (low calcium levels) is not a prominent electrolyte imbalance in chronic kidney disease unless there are additional factors involved. Hypokalemia (low potassium levels) is less common in chronic kidney disease, as the primary issue is usually potassium retention rather than deficiency.

5. A client is receiving a continuous IV infusion of heparin for the treatment of deep vein thrombosis. The client’s activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) level is 80 seconds. The client’s baseline before the initiation of therapy was 30 seconds. Which action does the nurse anticipate is needed?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse needs to decrease the rate of the heparin infusion. The therapeutic dose of heparin for the treatment of deep vein thrombosis is designed to keep the aPTT between 1.5 and 2.5 times normal. With the client's aPTT level elevated to 80 seconds from a baseline of 30 seconds, it indicates that the current rate of heparin infusion is too high. Lowering the rate of infusion is necessary to bring the aPTT within the desired therapeutic range. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because shutting off the infusion, increasing the rate, or leaving it as is would not address the elevated aPTT level and may lead to complications.

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