Nursing Elites

1. The client has reinforced instructions for taking cholestyramine (Questran). Which statement indicates a need for further instructions?

• A. I will continue taking vitamin supplements.
• B. This medication will help lower my cholesterol.
• C. This medication should only be taken with water.
• D. A high-fiber diet is important while taking this medication.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because cholestyramine should not only be taken with water. Flavored products or fruit juices can improve the taste. Choices A, B, and D are all correct statements. It is important for the client to continue taking vitamin supplements, understand that cholestyramine helps lower cholesterol, and maintain a high-fiber diet while taking this medication to enhance its effectiveness.

2. A client with coronary artery disease complains of substernal chest pain. After checking the client's heart rate and blood pressure, a nurse administers nitroglycerin, 0.4 mg, sublingually. After 5 minutes, the client states, 'My chest still hurts.' Select the appropriate actions that the nurse should take.

• A. Call a code blue.
• B. Contact the registered nurse.
• C. Contact the client's family.
• D. Assess the client's pain level.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to contact the registered nurse. When a client with coronary artery disease experiences chest pain and does not achieve relief after the initial administration of nitroglycerin, it is crucial to inform the registered nurse promptly. Following the usual guideline for nitroglycerin administration, the nurse may administer a second tablet after assessing the client's pain level. The nurse should continue to assess the client's pain and monitor vital signs before each dose administration. Calling a code blue is not warranted at this point, as the client's condition does not indicate an immediate life-threatening emergency. Contacting the client's family is not necessary unless requested by the client.

3. Mycophenolate mofetil (CellCept) is prescribed for a client as prophylaxis for organ rejection following an allogeneic renal transplant. Which of the following instructions does the nurse reinforce regarding administration of this medication?

• A. Administer on an empty stomach.
• B. Take the medication with a calcium-type antacid.
• C. Open the capsule and mix with food for administration.
• D. Contact the health care provider (HCP) if a sore throat occurs.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct instruction for administering mycophenolate mofetil (CellCept) is to contact the healthcare provider (HCP) if unusual bleeding or bruising, sore throat, or other adverse effects occur. It is essential not to open or crush the capsules to maintain the medication's efficacy.

4. Insulin glargine (Lantus) is prescribed for a client with diabetes mellitus. The nurse tells the client that it is best to take the insulin:

• A. 1 hour after each meal
• B. Once daily, at the same time each day
• C. 15 minutes before breakfast, lunch, and dinner
• D. Before each meal, based on the blood glucose level

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Insulin glargine (Lantus) is a long-acting insulin with a duration of action of approximately 24 hours, making it suitable for once-daily dosing at the same time each day. This regimen helps maintain consistent blood glucose levels and simplifies the client's treatment routine. Taking insulin glargine once daily provides basal insulin coverage throughout the day, reducing the risk of hypoglycemia compared to short-acting insulins that are taken before each meal.

5. Nalidixic acid (NegGram) is prescribed for a client with a urinary tract infection. On review of the client's record, the nurse notes that the client is taking warfarin sodium (Coumadin) daily. Which prescription should the nurse anticipate for this client?

• A. Discontinuation of warfarin sodium (Coumadin)
• B. A decrease in the warfarin sodium (Coumadin) dosage
• C. An increase in the warfarin sodium (Coumadin) dosage
• D. A decrease in the usual dose of nalidixic acid (NegGram)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Nalidixic acid can intensify the effects of oral anticoagulants by displacing these agents from binding sites on plasma proteins. When an oral anticoagulant, like warfarin sodium (Coumadin), is combined with nalidixic acid, a decrease in the anticoagulant dosage may be necessary to avoid excessive anticoagulation and potential bleeding risks. Therefore, the correct action for the nurse to anticipate in this situation is a decrease in the warfarin sodium (Coumadin) dosage. Choice A is incorrect because discontinuing warfarin sodium abruptly can lead to thrombosis or embolism. Choice C is incorrect as increasing the warfarin sodium dosage can potentiate the anticoagulant effect, leading to bleeding complications. Choice D is incorrect as reducing the dose of nalidixic acid would not directly address the interaction with warfarin sodium.

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