Nursing Elites

1. Atenolol hydrochloride (Tenormin) is prescribed for a hospitalized client. The nurse should perform which of the following as a priority action before administering the medication?

• A. Listen to the client's lung sounds.
• B. Check the client's blood pressure.
• C. Check the recent electrolyte levels.
• D. Assess the client for muscle weakness.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Atenolol hydrochloride is a beta-blocker used to treat hypertension. Checking the client's blood pressure is crucial before administration.

2. When a client is taking lansoprazole (Prevacid), which question should the nurse ask during data collection to determine medication effectiveness?

• A. Has your appetite increased?
• B. Are you experiencing any heartburn?
• C. Do you have any problems with vision?
• D. Do you experience any leg pain when walking?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client is taking lansoprazole (Prevacid), a gastric acid pump inhibitor used to treat gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD), the nurse should ask if the client is experiencing any heartburn to determine medication effectiveness. Heartburn is a common symptom of GERD, and the reduction of heartburn indicates the effectiveness of lansoprazole in managing acid reflux symptoms. Choices A, C, and D are not relevant to assessing the effectiveness of lansoprazole for GERD.

3. A client has been started on long-term therapy with rifampin (Rifadin). A nurse teaches the client that the medication:

• A. Should always be taken with food or antacids
• B. Should be double-dosed if one dose is forgotten
• C. Causes orange discoloration of sweat, tears, urine, and feces
• D. May not be discontinued independently if symptoms are gone in 3 months

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Rifampin causes orange-red discoloration of body secretions, including sweat, tears, urine, and feces. It can also permanently stain soft contact lenses. It is essential to take rifampin exactly as directed and not discontinue it without consulting the healthcare provider.

4. Tamoxifen is prescribed for the client with metastatic breast carcinoma. The nurse understands that the primary action of this medication is to:

• A. Increase DNA and RNA synthesis.
• B. Promote the biosynthesis of nucleic acids.
• C. Increase estrogen concentration and estrogen response.
• D. Compete with estradiol for binding to estrogen in tissues containing high concentrations of receptors.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The primary action of tamoxifen, an antineoplastic medication used in metastatic breast carcinoma, is to compete with estradiol for binding to estrogen receptors in tissues with high receptor concentrations. By doing so, tamoxifen reduces DNA synthesis and estrogen response, leading to its therapeutic effect in inhibiting the growth of estrogen-sensitive breast cancer cells.

5. While assisting in caring for a pregnant client receiving intravenous magnesium sulfate for preeclampsia management, a nurse notes the client's absent deep tendon reflexes. What determination should the nurse make based on this data?

• A. The magnesium sulfate is effective.
• B. The infusion rate needs to be increased.
• C. The client is experiencing cerebral edema.
• D. The client is experiencing magnesium toxicity.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a pregnant client receiving intravenous magnesium sulfate for preeclampsia management exhibits absent deep tendon reflexes, this indicates magnesium toxicity. Magnesium toxicity can occur as a complication of magnesium sulfate therapy, leading to suppressed reflexes. It is crucial for the nurse to recognize this sign promptly and report it to prevent further complications or harm to the client.

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