NCLEX-PN
Kaplan NCLEX Question of The Day
1. The nurse has just received a change-of-shift report. Which client should the nurse assess first?
- A. A client 2 hours post-lobectomy with 150cc drainage
- B. A client 2 days post-gastrectomy with scant drainage
- C. A client with pneumonia with an oral temperature of 102�F
- D. A client with a fractured hip in Buck's traction
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The nurse should assess the client 2 hours post-lobectomy with 150cc drainage first because postoperative assessments are crucial during the immediate postoperative period. This client may be at higher risk for complications, such as bleeding or infection, requiring immediate attention. Clients in choices B, C, and D are relatively stable and can be assessed after the immediate postoperative client has been evaluated.
2. The nurse is caring for a 44-year-old client diagnosed with hypoparathyroidism. Which electrolyte imbalance is closely associated with hypoparathyroidism?
- A. Hypocalcemia.
- B. Hyponatremia.
- C. Hyperkalemia.
- D. Hypophosphatemia.
Correct answer: A.
Rationale: The correct answer is Hypocalcemia. In hypoparathyroidism, where the parathyroid glands are not producing sufficient parathyroid hormone, calcium levels become inadequate. This leads to hypocalcemia, characterized by symptoms such as muscle spasms, anxiety, seizures, hypotension, and congestive heart failure. Hyponatremia and hyperkalemia are not typically associated with hypoparathyroidism. While hyperphosphatemia can be seen in hypoparathyroidism due to decreasing calcium levels, the question specifically asks about the primary electrolyte imbalance closely related to hypoparathyroidism, which is hypocalcemia.
3. A healthcare professional is reviewing a patient's serum glucose levels. Which of the following scenarios would indicate abnormal serum glucose values for a 30-year-old male?
- A. 70 mg/dL
- B. 55 mg/dL
- C. 110 mg/dL
- D. 100 mg/dL
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is 55 mg/dL. The standard range for serum glucose levels is typically 60-115 mg/dL. A serum glucose level of 55 mg/dL falls below this range, indicating hypoglycemia. Options A, C, and D are within the standard range for serum glucose levels and would not be considered abnormal for a 30-year-old male.
4. A patient has been ordered to receive Klonopin for the first time. Which of the following side effects is not associated with Klonopin?
- A. Drowsiness
- B. Ataxia
- C. Salivation elevation
- D. Diplopia
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Diplopia.' While drowsiness, ataxia, and salivation elevation are common side effects associated with Klonopin, diplopia is not typically linked to this medication. Diplopia, or double vision, is not a common side effect reported with the use of Klonopin. It is important to monitor patients for the known side effects such as drowsiness, ataxia, and salivation elevation when administering Klonopin. Choice A, B, and C are incorrect as they are known side effects of Klonopin, unlike diplopia which is not commonly observed with this medication.
5. A pregnant Asian client who is experiencing morning sickness wants to take ginger to relieve the nausea. Which of the following responses by the nurse is appropriate?
- A. "I will call your physician to see if we can start some ginger."?
- B. "We don't use home remedies in this clinic."?
- C. "Herbs are not as effective as regular medicines."?
- D. "Just eat some dry crackers instead."?
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct response is appropriate as it demonstrates cultural sensitivity. Ginger is commonly used to alleviate nausea, particularly in Asian cultures. Contacting the physician to discuss the use of ginger ensures the client's safety and respects their preferences. Choices B and C are incorrect as they disregard the client's request and fail to acknowledge their cultural beliefs. Choice D is incorrect because it does not address the client's desire to use ginger for relief.
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