Nursing Elites

1. The nurse has just received a change-of-shift report. Which client should the nurse assess first?

• A. A client 2 hours post-lobectomy with 150cc drainage
• B. A client 2 days post-gastrectomy with scant drainage
• C. A client with pneumonia with an oral temperature of 102�F
• D. A client with a fractured hip in Buck's traction

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should assess the client 2 hours post-lobectomy with 150cc drainage first because postoperative assessments are crucial during the immediate postoperative period. This client may be at higher risk for complications, such as bleeding or infection, requiring immediate attention. Clients in choices B, C, and D are relatively stable and can be assessed after the immediate postoperative client has been evaluated.

2. A client is going to have an endoscopy performed. Which of the following is not a probable reason for an endoscopy procedure?

• A. Aspiration noted on a honey-thick diet
• B. Pain felt during a bowel movement
• C. Pain felt in the left upper quadrant
• D. Right shoulder pain

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Pain felt during a bowel movement.' Endoscopy is used to examine the upper gastrointestinal tract, which includes the esophagus, stomach, and duodenum. Pain during a bowel movement would suggest an issue in the lower gastrointestinal tract, which is typically examined with a colonoscopy. Choices A, C, and D are not probable reasons for an endoscopy procedure as they relate to symptoms in the upper gastrointestinal tract or are not specific to gastrointestinal issues. Aspiration noted on a honey-thick diet could indicate a risk of aspiration pneumonia related to swallowing difficulties, which can be assessed through an endoscopy. Pain felt in the left upper quadrant may be related to conditions like gastritis or peptic ulcers that can be investigated using an endoscopy. Right shoulder pain can be a referred pain from conditions like gallbladder disease that can also be evaluated with an endoscopy.

3. Which of the following statements should the nurse use to best describe a very low-calorie diet (VLCD) to a client?

• A. "This diet can be used when there is close medical supervision."?
• B. "This is a long-term treatment measure that assists obese people who can't lose weight."?
• C. "The VLCD consists of solid food items that are pureed to facilitate digestion and absorption."?
• D. "A VLCD contains very little protein."?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is, "This diet can be used when there is close medical supervision."? Very low-calorie diets (VLCDs) are used in the clinical treatment of obesity under close medical supervision. The diet is low in calories, high in quality protein, and has a minimum of carbohydrates to spare protein and prevent ketosis. Choice B is incorrect because VLCDs are typically short-term interventions. Choice C is incorrect because VLCDs usually consist of nutritionally complete liquid formulations, not solid food items that are pureed. Choice D is incorrect because VLCDs actually contain a high quality of protein, although the overall caloric content is very low.

4. The charge nurse on a cardiac unit tells you a patient is exhibiting signs of right-sided heart failure. Which of the following would not indicate right-sided heart failure?

• A. Muscle tetany
• B. Syncope
• C. Numbness
• D. Anxiety

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Anxiety.' Anxiety is not a typical sign of right-sided heart failure. Right-sided heart failure usually presents with symptoms such as muscle tetany, syncope, and numbness. Muscle tetany can occur due to electrolyte imbalances seen in heart failure. Syncope can result from decreased cardiac output, leading to decreased perfusion to the brain. Numbness can occur due to poor circulation. While anxiety can be present in patients with various medical conditions, it is more commonly associated with respiratory acidosis or other psychological factors rather than right-sided heart failure.

5. Signs of impaired breathing in infants and children include all of the following except:

• A. nasal flaring
• B. grunting
• C. seesaw breathing
• D. quivering lips

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Signs of impaired breathing in infants and children typically include nasal flaring, grunting, and seesaw breathing. Nasal flaring is the widening of the nostrils during breathing to help with air intake, grunting is a sound made during expiration to keep the airway open, and seesaw breathing is an abnormal pattern where the chest moves in while the abdomen moves out. Quivering lips are not a typical sign of impaired breathing in infants and children, making it the correct answer. Nasal flaring, grunting, and seesaw breathing are all signs indicating the need for immediate medical attention due to potential respiratory distress.

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