Nursing Elites

1. The nurse has just received a change-of-shift report. Which client should the nurse assess first?

• A. A client 2 hours post-lobectomy with 150cc drainage
• B. A client 2 days post-gastrectomy with scant drainage
• C. A client with pneumonia with an oral temperature of 102�F
• D. A client with a fractured hip in Buck's traction

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should assess the client 2 hours post-lobectomy with 150cc drainage first because postoperative assessments are crucial during the immediate postoperative period. This client may be at higher risk for complications, such as bleeding or infection, requiring immediate attention. Clients in choices B, C, and D are relatively stable and can be assessed after the immediate postoperative client has been evaluated.

2. A nurse assesses an 83-year-old female's venous ulcer for the second time that is located near the right medial malleolus. The wound is exhibiting purulent drainage, and the patient has limited mobility in her home. Which of the following is the best course of action?

• A. Encourage warm water soaks to the right foot.
• B. Notify the case manager of the purulent drainage.
• C. Determine the patient's pulse in the right ankle.
• D. Recommend increased activity to reduce the purulent drainage.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct course of action is to encourage warm water soaks to the right foot. This can help promote wound healing and alleviate discomfort. Before recommending increased activity or notifying additional team members, it is crucial to assess arterial blood flow by determining the patient's pulse in the right ankle. Poor arterial blood flow could worsen the condition, making increased activity inappropriate. While notifying the case manager of purulent drainage is important, addressing the wound care directly should be the primary focus at this stage.

3. The factor that most determines drug distribution is:

• A. vascular perfusion of the tissue or organ.
• B. salt form.
• C. drug interactions.
• D. steady state.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'vascular perfusion of the tissue or organ.' Drug distribution is primarily determined by how well the circulatory system delivers the drug to various tissues and organs. Adequate perfusion ensures proper distribution of the drug throughout the body. While the salt form (choice B), drug interactions (choice C), and steady state (choice D) can influence drug efficacy and metabolism, they are not as crucial as vascular perfusion for the initial distribution of a drug.

4. A 70-year-old male who is recovering from a stroke exhibits signs of unilateral neglect. Which behavior is suggestive of unilateral neglect?

• A. The client is observed shaving only one side of his face.
• B. The client is unable to distinguish between two tactile stimuli presented simultaneously.
• C. The client is unable to complete a range of vision without turning his head side to side.
• D. The client is unable to carry out cognitive and motor activity at the same time.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Unilateral neglect is a condition where a person ignores one side of their body. In this case, the behavior of shaving only one side of the face indicates neglect of the other side. This behavior is suggestive of unilateral neglect as the individual is failing to attend to one side of their body. Choices B, C, and D are not associated with unilateral neglect. Choice B refers to tactile agnosia, a condition where a person cannot recognize objects by touch, not related to ignoring one side of the body. Choice C describes a visual field cut, which is a different visual deficit. Choice D relates to dual-task interference, not specific to ignoring one side of the body.

5. A client is complaining of difficulty walking secondary to a mass in the foot. The nurse should document this finding as:

• A. Plantar fasciitis.
• B. Hallux valgus.
• C. Hammertoe.
• D. Morton's neuroma.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is Morton's neuroma. Morton's neuroma is a small mass or tumor in a digital nerve of the foot, causing pain and difficulty walking. Hallux valgus is commonly known as a bunion, involving a bony bump at the base of the big toe. Hammertoe is a condition where one toe is bent abnormally at the middle joint, resembling a hammer. Plantar fasciitis is characterized by pain and inflammation in the arch of the foot, not by a mass causing difficulty walking. Therefore, options A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not describe a mass in the foot leading to difficulty walking, unlike Morton's neuroma.

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