NCLEX-PN
Kaplan NCLEX Question of The Day
1. The nurse has just received a change-of-shift report. Which client should the nurse assess first?
- A. A client 2 hours post-lobectomy with 150cc drainage
- B. A client 2 days post-gastrectomy with scant drainage
- C. A client with pneumonia with an oral temperature of 102�F
- D. A client with a fractured hip in Buck's traction
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The nurse should assess the client 2 hours post-lobectomy with 150cc drainage first because postoperative assessments are crucial during the immediate postoperative period. This client may be at higher risk for complications, such as bleeding or infection, requiring immediate attention. Clients in choices B, C, and D are relatively stable and can be assessed after the immediate postoperative client has been evaluated.
2. A nurse reviews the health history of a client who will be seeing the health care provider to obtain a prescription for a combination oral contraceptive (estrogen and progestin). Which finding in the health history would cause the nurse to determine that the use of a combination oral contraceptive is contraindicated?
- A. The client has type 2 diabetes mellitus.
- B. The client is being treated for hypertension.
- C. The client has been treated for breast cancer.
- D. The client has hyperlipidemia.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is that the client has been treated for breast cancer. Combination oral contraceptives containing estrogen and progestin are contraindicated for women with a history of certain conditions, such as thrombophlebitis, thromboembolic disorders, cerebrovascular disease, coronary artery disease, myocardial infarction, known or suspected breast cancer, known or suspected estrogen-dependent neoplasm, benign or malignant liver tumors, and undiagnosed abnormal genital bleeding. Although having type 2 diabetes mellitus, being treated for hypertension, or having hyperlipidemia are risk factors that require caution when using combination oral contraceptives, they are not absolute contraindications like a history of breast cancer.
3. Which of the following blood pressure parameters indicates PIH? Elevation over a baseline of:
- A. 30 mmHg systolic and/or 15 mmHg diastolic.
- B. 40 mmHg systolic and/or 20 mmHg diastolic.
- C. 10 mmHg systolic and/or 5 mmHg diastolic.
- D. 20 mmHg systolic and/or 20 mmHg diastolic.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 30 mmHg systolic and/or 15 mmHg diastolic. These parameters indicate mild PIH (pregnancy-induced hypertension). Mild preeclampsia is characterized by an increase in systolic blood pressure greater than 30 mmHg or an increase in diastolic blood pressure greater than 15 mmHg, observed on two readings taken 6 hours apart (or reaching 140/90). Choice B (40 mmHg systolic and/or 20 mmHg diastolic) represents a more significant elevation and would indicate a more severe condition than mild PIH. Choices C (10 mmHg systolic and/or 5 mmHg diastolic) and D (20 mmHg systolic and/or 20 mmHg diastolic) do not meet the criteria for indicating PIH as they are below the accepted parameters for mild PIH.
4. What is one characteristic of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)?
- A. The presence of circulating antibodies that neutralize HIV is evidence of exposure to HIV.
- B. HIV replication occurs intracellularly.
- C. HIV integrates its genetic material into the host cell's DNA.
- D. DNA replication is irrelevant to HIV.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. HIV integrates its genetic material into the host cell's DNA. The virus uses the enzyme reverse transcriptase to make a DNA copy of its RNA, which is then inserted into the genetic material of the infected cell. Choice A is incorrect because the presence of antibodies does not indicate immunity to HIV but rather exposure to the virus. Choice B is incorrect as HIV replication occurs intracellularly, inside the host cell. Choice D is irrelevant to the characteristics of HIV.
5. Which electrolyte imbalance would be the nurse's priority concern in the burn client?
- A. Hypernatremia
- B. Hyperkalemia
- C. Hypoalbuminemia
- D. Hypermagnesemia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is hyperkalemia. In a burn client, the nurse's priority concern is hyperkalemia due to cell lysis, which releases potassium into the bloodstream. This can lead to dangerous levels of potassium in the blood. Hypernatremia (Choice A) is less likely in burn clients. Hypoalbuminemia (Choice C) can occur but is not the priority in the immediate management of a burn client. Hypermagnesemia (Choice D) is not typically associated with burn injuries.
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