the nurse has just received a change of shift report which client should the nurse assess irst
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-PN

Kaplan NCLEX Question of The Day

1. The nurse has just received a change-of-shift report. Which client should the nurse assess first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should assess the client 2 hours post-lobectomy with 150cc drainage first because postoperative assessments are crucial during the immediate postoperative period. This client may be at higher risk for complications, such as bleeding or infection, requiring immediate attention. Clients in choices B, C, and D are relatively stable and can be assessed after the immediate postoperative client has been evaluated.

2. Which physiologic mechanism best describes the function of the sodium-potassium pump?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Active transport is the correct answer as it accurately describes the process involved in the sodium-potassium pump. The pump utilizes energy to move ions against their concentration gradient, maintaining cellular concentrations. Diffusion (choice B) is a passive process where substances move from an area of higher concentration to lower concentration. Filtration (choice C) involves the movement of solutes based on pressure gradients. Osmosis (choice D) is the movement of water across a semipermeable membrane.

3. A nurse working in a surgical unit notices a patient experiencing SOB, calf pain, and warmth over the posterior calf. All of these symptoms may indicate which of the following medical conditions?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is that the patient may have a DVT (Deep Vein Thrombosis). SOB (Shortness of Breath), calf pain, and warmth over the posterior calf are classic signs and symptoms of DVT. DVT is a serious condition where a blood clot forms in a deep vein, commonly in the legs. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because dermatitis does not typically present with these symptoms, late stages of CHF would manifest with other signs, and anxiety after surgery usually does not produce these specific symptoms.

4. A client has chronic respiratory acidosis caused by end-stage chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Oxygen is delivered at 1 L/min via nasal cannula. The nurse teaches the family that the reason for this is to avoid respiratory depression, based on which of the following explanations?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In clients with COPD and chronic respiratory acidosis, they are compensating for low oxygen and high carbon dioxide levels. Hypoxia acts as the main stimulus to breathe in individuals with chronic hypercapnia. When oxygen is administered, it can decrease the respiratory drive by eliminating the hypoxic drive and reducing the stimulus to breathe. Therefore, delivering oxygen at 1 L/min via nasal cannula helps prevent respiratory depression by maintaining the hypoxic drive to breathe. The other options are incorrect: COPD clients do not depend on a low carbon dioxide level as they are chronically hypercapnic, they do not retain hydrogen ions with high oxygen doses, and they do not thrive on a high oxygen level.

5. The nurse is providing post-operative care to the craniotomy client. Diabetes insipidus is suspected when the client's urine output suddenly increases significantly. Which action takes highest priority?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to check a blood pressure. Diabetes insipidus can lead to dehydration and potential hypovolemic shock due to excessive urine output. Monitoring blood pressure is crucial to assess the client's circulatory status and detect signs of shock early. Checking the blood pressure will provide essential information on perfusion, which is vital in this situation. Continuing to monitor urine output, checking a pulse, or assessing the level of consciousness are important but not as high a priority as evaluating the blood pressure in a potentially critical situation like suspected diabetes insipidus.

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