Nursing Elites

1. The nurse has been teaching a client with Insulin Dependent Diabetes Mellitus. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I use a sliding scale to adjust regular insulin to my sugar level.
• B. Since my eyesight is so bad, I ask the nurse to fill several syringes.
• C. I keep my regular insulin bottle in the refrigerator.
• D. I always make sure to shake the NPH bottle hard to mix it well.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Shaking the NPH insulin bottle hard can cause air bubbles and affect dosing accuracy; it should be rolled gently instead.

2. A client who is 2 days postoperative following abdominal surgery is transitioning from a clear liquid diet to a full liquid diet. The nurse should remind the client that which of the following items is included in a full liquid diet?

• A. Creamed peas
• B. Cottage cheese
• C. Chocolate pudding
• D. Applesauce

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, chocolate pudding. A full liquid diet consists of smooth, creamy foods like pudding. Creamed peas (choice A) are not typically allowed on a full liquid diet as they may contain solid pieces. Cottage cheese (choice B) and applesauce (choice D) are also not part of a full liquid diet as they are not in liquid form.

3. When another nurse enters the room in response to a call, after checking the client's pulse and respirations during CPR on an adult in cardiopulmonary arrest, what should be the function of the second nurse?

• A. Relieve the nurse performing CPR
• B. Go get the code cart
• C. Participate with the compressions or breathing
• D. Validate the client's advanced directive

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to participate in compressions or breathing. This is essential to ensure continuous and effective CPR. Relieving the nurse performing CPR (Choice A) is not recommended as it can interrupt the life-saving procedure. Going to get the code cart (Choice B) may be necessary in certain situations but should not take precedence over providing immediate assistance in CPR. Validating the client's advanced directive (Choice D) is not the primary role in this scenario where urgent action is needed to support the client's circulation and breathing.

4. The nurse is reviewing laboratory results on a client with acute renal failure. Which one of the following should be reported immediately?

• A. Blood urea nitrogen 50 mg/dl
• B. Hemoglobin of 10.3 g/dl
• C. Venous blood pH 7.30
• D. Serum potassium 6 mEq/L

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A serum potassium level of 6 mEq/L indicates hyperkalemia, which can be life-threatening and requires immediate intervention. Hyperkalemia can lead to dangerous cardiac arrhythmias and must be addressed promptly. The other options are not as urgent. A blood urea nitrogen level of 50 mg/dl may indicate kidney dysfunction but does not require immediate intervention. Hemoglobin of 10.3 g/dl may suggest anemia, which needs management but is not an immediate threat. A venous blood pH of 7.30 may indicate acidosis, which is concerning but not as acutely dangerous as hyperkalemia.

5. A client is diagnosed with a spontaneous pneumothorax necessitating the insertion of a chest tube. What is the best explanation for the nurse to provide this client?

• A. The tube will drain fluid from your chest.
• B. The tube will remove excess air from your chest.
• C. The tube controls the amount of air that enters your chest.
• D. The tube will seal the hole in your lung.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'The tube will remove excess air from your chest.' In a spontaneous pneumothorax, air accumulates in the pleural space, causing lung collapse. The chest tube is inserted to remove this excess air, allowing the lung to re-expand. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the primary purpose of a chest tube in pneumothorax is to evacuate air, not fluid, control air entry, or seal a lung hole.

Similar Questions