HESI RN
Nutrition HESI Practice Exam
1. Which of these clients with associated lab reports is a priority for the nurse to report to the public health department within the next 24 hours?
- A. An infant with a positive stool culture for Shigella
- B. An elderly factory worker with a positive lab report for acid-fast bacillus smear
- C. A young adult commercial pilot with a positive histopathological examination for Pneumocystis carinii from an induced sputum
- D. A middle-aged nurse with a history of varicella-zoster virus and crops of vesicles on an erythematous base appearing on the skin
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because a positive acid-fast bacillus smear in an elderly factory worker suggests tuberculosis, a serious communicable disease that must be reported promptly to the public health department to prevent its spread. Choice A is incorrect as Shigella is an important pathogen, but it does not require immediate public health reporting. Choice C is incorrect because Pneumocystis carinii is an opportunistic pathogen and does not require urgent public health reporting. Choice D is incorrect as varicella-zoster virus causes chickenpox and shingles, both of which are not reportable diseases to the public health department.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for a low-sodium diet. The client's family has requested to bring in some of the client's favorite foods. Which of the following food items should the nurse recommend the family members to omit?
- A. Boiled rice
- B. Italian bread
- C. Broiled salmon filet
- D. Pickled beets
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Pickled beets. Pickled foods often contain high levels of sodium, which should be avoided in a low-sodium diet. Boiled rice, Italian bread, and broiled salmon filet are generally lower in sodium compared to pickled beets, making them more suitable choices for a client on a low-sodium diet.
3. The nurse is caring for a client receiving a blood transfusion who develops urticaria half an hour after the transfusion has begun. What is the first action the nurse should take?
- A. Stop the infusion
- B. Slow the rate of infusion
- C. Take vital signs and observe for further deterioration
- D. Administer Benadryl and continue the infusion
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In the scenario of a client developing urticaria during a blood transfusion, the immediate priority for the nurse is to stop the infusion. This action is crucial to prevent further administration of the allergen causing the reaction. Slowing the rate of infusion (Choice B) may not be sufficient to address the allergic response effectively. While monitoring vital signs (Choice C) is important, stopping the infusion takes precedence to prevent worsening of the reaction. Administering Benadryl (Choice D) should be considered after stopping the infusion, following the healthcare provider's orders, and assessing the client's condition.
4. The client with congestive heart failure has been educated about proper nutrition. The selection of which lunch indicates the client has learned about sodium restriction?
- A. Cheese sandwich with a glass of 2% milk
- B. Sliced turkey sandwich and canned pineapple
- C. Cheeseburger and baked potato
- D. Mushroom pizza and ice cream
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Sliced turkey sandwich and canned pineapple. This lunch choice is suitable for a client with congestive heart failure as it is low in sodium. Sliced turkey is a lean protein choice, and canned pineapple is a low-sodium fruit option. Choice A contains high-sodium items like cheese and 2% milk. Choice C includes a cheeseburger, which is typically high in sodium, and a baked potato could also be high in sodium depending on preparation. Choice D consists of mushroom pizza and ice cream, both of which can be high in sodium, especially in processed or restaurant-prepared forms.
5. A client is being treated for congestive heart failure with furosemide (Lasix). Which of these findings would be most concerning to the nurse?
- A. Increased urine output
- B. Decreased appetite
- C. Weight loss of 2 kg in 24 hours
- D. Blood pressure of 140/90 mm Hg
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. A rapid weight loss of 2 kg in 24 hours suggests significant fluid loss, which is concerning in clients on diuretics like furosemide. Increased urine output (choice A) is an expected effect of diuretic therapy. Decreased appetite (choice B) is a common side effect but not as concerning as rapid weight loss. Blood pressure of 140/90 mm Hg (choice D) is slightly elevated but not the most concerning finding in a client being treated for congestive heart failure with furosemide.
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