Nursing Elites

1. A client receiving filgrastim (Neupogen) for neutropenia is learning about compromised host precautions. The selection of which lunch suggests the client has learned about necessary dietary changes?

• A. grilled chicken sandwich and skim milk
• B. roast beef, mashed potatoes, and green beans
• C. peanut butter sandwich, banana, and iced tea
• D. barbecue beef, baked beans, and cole slaw

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Roast beef, mashed potatoes, and green beans are suitable choices for clients with neutropenia because they are considered safe options that help avoid potential sources of infection. Grilled chicken, peanut butter, and barbecue beef may carry a higher risk of bacterial contamination, which could be harmful to a client with compromised immunity.

2. Discharge instructions for a client taking alprazolam (Xanax) should include which of the following?

• A. Sedative hypnotics are effective analgesics
• B. Sudden cessation of alprazolam (Xanax) can cause rebound insomnia and nightmares
• C. Caffeine beverages can increase the effect of sedative hypnotics
• D. Avoidance of excessive exercise and high temperature is recommended

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Alprazolam should not be stopped abruptly as it can cause rebound insomnia and nightmares; gradual tapering is necessary. Choice A is incorrect as sedative hypnotics are not primarily used as analgesics. Choice C is incorrect as caffeine can decrease the effects of sedative hypnotics rather than increase them. Choice D is incorrect as there is no specific recommendation to avoid excessive exercise or high temperature related to alprazolam use.

3. The nurse is caring for a client who requires a mechanical ventilator for breathing. The high-pressure alarm goes off on the ventilator. What is the first action the nurse should perform?

• A. Disconnect the client from the ventilator and use a manual resuscitation bag
• B. Perform a quick assessment of the client's condition
• C. Call the respiratory therapist for help
• D. Press the alarm reset button on the ventilator

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When the high-pressure alarm on a ventilator goes off, the nurse's initial action should be to perform a quick assessment of the client's condition. This assessment helps in promptly identifying the cause of the alarm, such as mucus plugging, kinking of the tubing, or other issues. By assessing the client first, the nurse can determine the appropriate intervention needed to address the alarm. Choices A and D are incorrect because disconnecting the client from the ventilator or pressing the alarm reset button should not be the initial actions without assessing the client's condition. While calling the respiratory therapist for help could be beneficial, assessing the client's condition should be the nurse's priority to address the immediate concern.

4. A client diagnosed with cirrhosis of the liver and ascites is receiving Spironolactone (Aldactone). The nurse understands that this medication spares the elimination of which element?

• A. Sodium
• B. Potassium
• C. Phosphate
• D. Albumin

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Potassium. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, which means it helps retain potassium while eliminating sodium. This is beneficial for patients with cirrhosis and ascites as they are at risk of low potassium levels. Choice A, Sodium, is incorrect as Spironolactone does not spare the elimination of sodium but rather helps eliminate it. Choice C, Phosphate, is incorrect as Spironolactone does not directly affect phosphate levels. Choice D, Albumin, is incorrect as Spironolactone does not spare the elimination of albumin.

5. A client has been diagnosed with Zollinger-Ellison syndrome. Which information is most important for the nurse to reinforce with the client?

• A. It is a condition in which one or more tumors, called gastrinomas, form in the pancreas or in the upper part of the small intestine (duodenum).
• B. It is critical to promptly report any findings of peptic ulcers to your health care provider.
• C. Treatment consists of medications to reduce acid and heal any peptic ulcers and, if possible, surgery to remove any tumors.
• D. The average age at diagnosis is 50 years, and peptic ulcers may occur in unusual areas of the stomach or intestine.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Prompt reporting of peptic ulcers is crucial in managing Zollinger-Ellison syndrome to prevent complications and guide treatment. While choices A, C, and D provide relevant information about the condition and its treatment, the most important aspect in the client's care is the prompt reporting of peptic ulcers. This is because untreated peptic ulcers in Zollinger-Ellison syndrome can lead to serious complications such as gastrointestinal bleeding or perforation. Therefore, ensuring timely communication with the healthcare provider is essential for effective management of the condition.

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