Nursing Elites

1. A client receiving filgrastim (Neupogen) for neutropenia is learning about compromised host precautions. The selection of which lunch suggests the client has learned about necessary dietary changes?

• A. grilled chicken sandwich and skim milk
• B. roast beef, mashed potatoes, and green beans
• C. peanut butter sandwich, banana, and iced tea
• D. barbecue beef, baked beans, and cole slaw

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Roast beef, mashed potatoes, and green beans are suitable choices for clients with neutropenia because they are considered safe options that help avoid potential sources of infection. Grilled chicken, peanut butter, and barbecue beef may carry a higher risk of bacterial contamination, which could be harmful to a client with compromised immunity.

2. When administering enteral feeding to a client via a jejunostomy tube, the nurse should administer the formula

• A. Every four to six hours
• B. Continuously
• C. In a bolus
• D. Every hour

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When administering enteral feeding through a jejunostomy tube, the nurse should administer the formula continuously. Continuous feeding is essential for optimal nutrient absorption and to prevent complications. Administering the formula every four to six hours, in a bolus, or every hour may lead to inadequate nutrition, improper absorption, and an increased risk of complications such as aspiration or dumping syndrome, making these choices incorrect.

3. The nurse is caring for a client in hypertensive crisis in an intensive care unit. The priority assessment in the first hour of care is

• A. Heart rate
• B. Pedal pulses
• C. Lung sounds
• D. Pupil responses

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Assessing pupil responses is crucial in a client with hypertensive crisis to monitor for signs of increased intracranial pressure, which can indicate potential neurological complications. While heart rate, pedal pulses, and lung sounds are important assessments, they do not take precedence over neurological assessments in this critical situation.

4. Which information is a priority for the client to reinforce after intravenous pyelography?

• A. Eat a light diet for the rest of the day
• B. Rest for the next 24 hours as the preparation and test are tiring.
• C. During waking hours, drink at least 1 8-ounce glass of fluid every hour for the next 2 days
• D. Measure urine output for the next day and immediately notify the healthcare provider if it decreases.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: After intravenous pyelography, monitoring urine output is crucial to assess kidney function and detect any early signs of complications. Decreased urine output could indicate a problem with kidney function or potential complications from the procedure. While rest and hydration are important, the priority lies in monitoring urine output for any abnormalities. Eating a light diet may be recommended, but it is not the priority post-procedure instruction.

5. Why is it important for the healthcare provider to monitor blood pressure in clients receiving antipsychotic drugs?

• A. Orthostatic hypotension is a common side effect.
• B. Most antipsychotic drugs cause elevated blood pressure.
• C. This provides information on the amount of sodium allowed in the diet.
• D. It will indicate the need to institute anti-parkinsonian drugs.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because monitoring for orthostatic hypotension is crucial when clients are receiving antipsychotic drugs since it is a common side effect. Orthostatic hypotension can lead to symptoms like dizziness and falls, making it essential to monitor blood pressure regularly. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because most antipsychotic drugs do not typically cause elevated blood pressure, monitoring blood pressure is not directly related to the amount of sodium in the diet, and blood pressure monitoring is not primarily used to determine the need for anti-parkinsonian drugs in clients receiving antipsychotic medications.

Similar Questions