Nursing Elites

1. When should the LPN/LVN encourage the laboring client to begin pushing?

• A. When there is only an anterior or posterior lip of the cervix left.
• B. When the client describes the need to have a bowel movement.
• C. When the cervix is completely dilated.
• D. When the cervix is completely effaced.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The LPN/LVN should encourage the laboring client to begin pushing when the cervix is completely dilated to 10 centimeters. Pushing before full dilation can lead to cervical injury and ineffective labor progress. By waiting for complete dilation, the client can push effectively, aiding in the descent of the baby through the birth canal. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because pushing before complete dilation can be harmful and may not effectively help in the descent of the baby. The presence of an anterior or posterior lip of the cervix, the urge to have a bowel movement, or complete effacement of the cervix are not indicators for the initiation of pushing during labor.

2. A one-day-old neonate develops a cephalohematoma. The nurse should closely assess this neonate for which common complication?

• A. Jaundice.
• B. Poor feeding.
• C. Brain injury.
• D. Hypoglycemia.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A cephalohematoma is a collection of blood between the skull and the periosteum. As the blood breaks down, there is an increased risk of jaundice due to the release of bilirubin from the breakdown of red blood cells. Jaundice is a common complication associated with cephalohematoma in neonates. Therefore, the nurse should closely monitor the neonate for signs of jaundice and manage it accordingly.

3. A pregnant client receives Rho(D) immune globulin after an amniocentesis. The day following, she reports a temperature of 99.8°F (37.67°C). Which action should the nurse implement?

• A. Schedule a visit with the healthcare provider today.
• B. Verify the compatibility of the administered Rho(D) immune globulin.
• C. Encourage the client to increase her intake of oral fluids.
• D. Instruct the client to maintain bedrest for 24 hours.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A mild increase in temperature post-amniocentesis is common, and encouraging the client to increase oral fluid intake is the appropriate action. Increasing fluid intake can help reduce mild fever, promote recovery, and prevent dehydration. It is important for the nurse to educate the client on the importance of staying hydrated to support her overall well-being during this time.

4. What is the priority nursing assessment immediately following the birth of an infant with esophageal atresia and a tracheoesophageal (TE) fistula?

• A. Body temperature.
• B. Level of pain.
• C. Time of first void.
• D. Number of vessels in the cord.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The priority nursing assessment immediately following the birth of an infant with esophageal atresia and a tracheoesophageal (TE) fistula is to check the number of vessels in the cord. This assessment is crucial to identify any potential anomalies related to the TE fistula, as abnormalities in the cord vessels may indicate associated congenital anomalies that need immediate attention.

5. The LPN/LVN is preparing a client with a term pregnancy who is in active labor for an amniotomy. What equipment should the nurse have available at the client's bedside?

• A. Litmus paper.
• B. Fetal scalp electrode.
• C. A sterile glove.
• D. Needle and Thread

Correct answer: C

Rationale: For performing an amniotomy, the nurse should have a sterile glove to maintain asepsis and an amniotic hook to rupture the amniotic sac. Litmus paper is not required for this procedure, and a fetal scalp electrode is used for fetal monitoring, not for an amniotomy.

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