Nursing Elites

1. During a prenatal visit, the LPN/LVN discusses with a client the effects of smoking on the fetus. When compared with nonsmokers, mothers who smoke during pregnancy tend to produce infants who have

• A. lower Apgar scores.
• B. lower birth weights.
• C. respiratory distress.
• D. a higher rate of congenital anomalies.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When mothers smoke during pregnancy, it is associated with intrauterine growth restriction, which leads to lower birth weights in infants. Maternal smoking can restrict the flow of oxygen and nutrients to the fetus, affecting its growth and development. This can result in babies being born with lower birth weights, which can have various health implications for the newborn. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as smoking during pregnancy is primarily linked to intrauterine growth restriction and lower birth weights in infants, rather than lower Apgar scores, respiratory distress, or a higher rate of congenital anomalies.

2. The nurse is assessing a newborn who was precipitously delivered at 38 weeks' gestation. The newborn is tremulous, tachycardic, and hypertensive. Which assessment action is most important for the nurse to take?

• A. Perform a gestational age assessment.
• B. Obtain a drug screen for cocaine.
• C. Determine reactivity of neonatal reflexes.
• D. Weigh and measure the newborn.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to obtain a drug screen for cocaine. Tremulousness, tachycardia, and hypertension in a newborn can be signs of neonatal abstinence syndrome, often caused by maternal drug use, such as cocaine. Identifying maternal drug use is crucial for appropriate management and treatment of the newborn.

3. In assessing a 9-year-old boy admitted to the hospital with possible acute post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis (APSGN), what information is most significant to obtain in his history?

• A. Back pain for a few days
• B. A history of hypertension
• C. A sore throat last week
• D. Diuresis during the nights

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A recent sore throat is most significant in this case as it could indicate a preceding streptococcal infection, which is a crucial factor in diagnosing APSGN. Streptococcal infection often precedes APSGN, and recognizing this history is essential for appropriate management and treatment. Choices A, B, and D are less relevant in the context of APSGN. Back pain and diuresis are symptoms that may not directly correlate with APSGN, while a history of hypertension, although important in general health assessment, is not as specific to the current scenario compared to a recent sore throat.

4. An unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) reports to the charge nurse that a client who delivered a 7-pound infant 12 hours ago is reporting a severe headache. The client’s blood pressure is 110/70 mmHg, respiratory rate is 18 breaths/min, heart rate is 74 beats/min, and temperature is 98.6°F (37°C). What action should the charge nurse implement first?

• A. Notify the healthcare provider of the assessment findings.
• B. Administer analgesics as prescribed.
• C. Increase the client’s fluid intake.
• D. Monitor the client’s vital signs every hour.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A severe headache post-delivery could indicate a serious condition such as preeclampsia or a spinal headache, which requires immediate medical attention. Notifying the healthcare provider of the assessment findings allows for prompt evaluation and appropriate management of the client's condition.

5. A new mother calls the nurse stating that she wants to start feeding her 6-month-old child something besides breast milk, but is concerned that the infant is too young to start eating solid foods. How should the nurse respond?

• A. Advise the mother to wait at least another month before starting any solid foods.
• B. Instruct the mother to offer a few spoons of 2 or 3 pureed fruits at each meal.
• C. Reassure the mother that the infant is old enough to eat iron-fortified cereal.
• D. Encourage the mother to schedule a developmental assessment of the infant.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: At 6 months, infants are generally ready to start eating iron-fortified cereals as their iron stores begin to deplete. Introducing iron-fortified cereals at this age helps meet the infant's nutritional needs, particularly for iron, which becomes deficient as the infant's iron reserves diminish. It is a safe and appropriate first food to introduce to infants around 6 months of age, along with continued breastfeeding or formula feeding. Choice A is incorrect because waiting another month is not necessary if the infant is 6 months old. Choice B is incorrect as introducing pureed fruits as the first food may not provide the necessary iron that the infant needs at this stage. Choice D is also incorrect as scheduling a developmental assessment is not indicated solely based on the desire to start solid foods; it is more appropriate to reassure the mother about starting iron-fortified cereal.

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