HESI RN
HESI Maternity Test Bank
1. The LPN/LVN is providing discharge teaching for a client who is 24 hours postpartum. The nurse explains to the client that her vaginal discharge will change from red to pink and then to white. The client asks, 'What if I start having red bleeding after it changes?' What should the nurse instruct the client to do?
- A. Reduce activity level and notify the healthcare provider.
- B. Go to bed and assume a knee-chest position.
- C. Massage the uterus and go to the emergency room.
- D. Do not worry as this is a normal occurrence.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: If the client experiences a return to red bleeding after transitioning to pink and white, it may indicate possible complications like hemorrhage or retained placental fragments. Instructing the client to reduce activity level and promptly notify the healthcare provider is crucial for timely evaluation and management of these potentially serious postpartum complications. Choice B is incorrect as assuming a knee-chest position is not the appropriate action for red bleeding postpartum. Choice C is incorrect as massaging the uterus without professional assessment can be dangerous. Choice D is incorrect because red bleeding after transitioning is not normal and should be evaluated promptly.
2. A 6-week-old infant diagnosed with pyloric stenosis has recently developed projectile vomiting. Which assessment finding indicates to the nurse that the infant is becoming dehydrated?
- A. Weak cry without tears.
- B. Bulging fontanel.
- C. Visible peristaltic wave.
- D. Palpable mass in the right upper quadrant.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In infants, a weak cry without tears is a classic sign of dehydration. Tears are produced by the lacrimal glands, and reduced tear production is a result of dehydration. This assessment finding should alert the nurse to the infant's dehydration status, requiring prompt intervention to prevent further complications.
3. A laboring client’s membranes rupture spontaneously. The nurse notices that the amniotic fluid is greenish-brown. What intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Turn the client to her left side
- B. Contact the healthcare provider
- C. Assess the fetal heart rate
- D. Check the cervical dilation
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to assess the fetal heart rate. When amniotic fluid is greenish-brown, it may indicate the presence of meconium, which can be concerning as it may lead to fetal distress. Assessing the fetal heart rate will help determine the well-being of the fetus and guide further actions to ensure the safety of both the mother and the baby.
4. A 26-year-old, gravida 2, para 1 client is admitted to the hospital at 28 weeks gestation in preterm labor. She is given 3 doses of terbutaline sulfate (Brethine) 0.25 mg subcutaneously to stop her labor contractions. The LPN/LVN plans to monitor for which primary side effect of terbutaline sulfate?
- A. Drowsiness and bradycardia.
- B. Depressed reflexes and increased respirations.
- C. Tachycardia and a feeling of nervousness.
- D. A flushed, warm feeling and a dry mouth.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The primary side effects of terbutaline sulfate are related to its beta-adrenergic effects. Tachycardia and nervousness are common side effects of terbutaline sulfate. Tachycardia is expected due to the drug's beta-agonist properties, while nervousness can result from the stimulation of beta-adrenergic receptors. It is crucial to monitor the client for these side effects to ensure early recognition and appropriate management.
5. The healthcare provider prescribes terbutaline (Brethine) for a client in preterm labor. Before initiating this prescription, it is most important for the LPN/LVN to assess the client for which condition?
- A. Gestational diabetes.
- B. Elevated blood pressure.
- C. Urinary tract infection.
- D. Swelling in lower extremities.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Gestational diabetes. Terbutaline (Brethine) is known to cause hyperglycemia, so it is crucial to assess for gestational diabetes before administering it. Assessing for elevated blood pressure (choice B), urinary tract infection (choice C), or swelling in lower extremities (choice D) is not directly related to the potential side effect of terbutaline in causing hyperglycemia.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access