Nursing Elites

1. An infant with tetralogy of Fallot becomes acutely cyanotic and hyperneic. Which action should the nurse implement first?

• A. Place the infant in a knee-chest position.
• B. Administer morphine sulfate.
• C. Start intravenous fluids.
• D. Provide 100% oxygen by face mask.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a tetralogy of Fallot situation, placing the infant in a knee-chest position is the initial priority to help increase systemic vascular resistance, which reduces the right-to-left shunt and improves oxygenation. This position can assist in optimizing oxygen levels before considering other interventions. Administering morphine sulfate (choice B) is not the first-line treatment for tetralogy of Fallot crisis. Starting intravenous fluids (choice C) may be necessary but is not the priority in this situation. Providing 100% oxygen by face mask (choice D) may not fully address the underlying issue of decreased systemic vascular resistance that leads to cyanosis in tetralogy of Fallot.

2. A community health nurse visits a family in which a 16-year-old unmarried daughter is pregnant with her first child and is at 32-weeks gestation. The client tells the nurse that she has been having intermittent back pain since the night before. What is the priority nursing intervention?

• A. Ask the client’s mother to call an ambulance for transport to the hospital immediately.
• B. Determine what physical activities the client has performed for the past 24 hours.
• C. Teach the client how to perform pelvic rock exercises and observe for correct feedback.
• D. Ask the client if she has experienced any recent changes in vaginal discharge.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The priority nursing intervention in this situation is to ask the client if she has experienced any recent changes in vaginal discharge. Changes in vaginal discharge can indicate preterm labor, making it crucial to assess promptly. This information will help determine if the client needs immediate medical attention and appropriate interventions to prevent preterm birth and ensure the well-being of the mother and the baby. Option A is not the priority as back pain alone does not warrant immediate ambulance transport. Option B is less relevant in this context as the focus should be on immediate concerns related to pregnancy. Option C is not the priority as addressing back pain should come after ruling out urgent pregnancy-related issues.

3. The healthcare provider is reviewing the serum laboratory findings for a 5-day-old infant with congenital adrenal hyperplasia. Which laboratory result should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately?

• A. Bilirubin of 1.5 mg/dl.
• B. Glucose of 80 mg/dl.
• C. Potassium of 4.5 mEq/L.
• D. Sodium of 119 mEq/L.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Low sodium levels in congenital adrenal hyperplasia can indicate salt-wasting crisis, which is a life-threatening emergency requiring immediate medical attention. Monitoring sodium levels is crucial to prevent complications such as dehydration and shock in these patients.

4. After administering the varicella vaccine to a 5-year-old child, which instruction should the nurse provide the child’s parent?

• A. Chewable children’s aspirin will not help prevent inflammation.
• B. Keep the child home for the next two days.
• C. Any fever should be monitored and reported if severe.
• D. Apply a cool pack to the injection site to reduce discomfort.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: After receiving the varicella vaccine, applying a cool pack to the injection site can help reduce discomfort. This intervention is a simple and effective way to manage local reactions at the site of the vaccination, providing comfort to the child and potentially reducing swelling or pain. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because chewable children’s aspirin is not typically recommended after vaccination, keeping the child home is not necessary unless advised by a healthcare provider, and monitoring fever alone is not the primary instruction post-varicella vaccination.

5. When should the LPN/LVN encourage the laboring client to begin pushing?

• A. When there is only an anterior or posterior lip of the cervix left.
• B. When the client describes the need to have a bowel movement.
• C. When the cervix is completely dilated.
• D. When the cervix is completely effaced.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The LPN/LVN should encourage the laboring client to begin pushing when the cervix is completely dilated to 10 centimeters. Pushing before full dilation can lead to cervical injury and ineffective labor progress. By waiting for complete dilation, the client can push effectively, aiding in the descent of the baby through the birth canal. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because pushing before complete dilation can be harmful and may not effectively help in the descent of the baby. The presence of an anterior or posterior lip of the cervix, the urge to have a bowel movement, or complete effacement of the cervix are not indicators for the initiation of pushing during labor.

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