Nursing Elites

1. An infant with tetralogy of Fallot becomes acutely cyanotic and hyperneic. Which action should the nurse implement first?

• A. Place the infant in a knee-chest position.
• B. Administer morphine sulfate.
• C. Start intravenous fluids.
• D. Provide 100% oxygen by face mask.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a tetralogy of Fallot situation, placing the infant in a knee-chest position is the initial priority to help increase systemic vascular resistance, which reduces the right-to-left shunt and improves oxygenation. This position can assist in optimizing oxygen levels before considering other interventions. Administering morphine sulfate (choice B) is not the first-line treatment for tetralogy of Fallot crisis. Starting intravenous fluids (choice C) may be necessary but is not the priority in this situation. Providing 100% oxygen by face mask (choice D) may not fully address the underlying issue of decreased systemic vascular resistance that leads to cyanosis in tetralogy of Fallot.

2. The healthcare provider is preparing to give an enema to a laboring client. Which client requires the most caution when carrying out this procedure?

• A. A gravida 6, para 5 who is 38 years of age and in early labor.
• B. A 37-week primigravida who presents at 100% effacement, 3 cm cervical dilation, and a -1 station.
• C. A gravida 2, para 1 who is at 1 cm cervical dilation and a 0 station admitted for induction of labor due to postdates.
• D. A 40-week primigravida who is at 6 cm cervical dilation and the presenting part is not engaged.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The client at 40 weeks of gestation with a 6 cm cervical dilation and a presenting part that is not engaged requires the most caution during an enema procedure. An unengaged presenting part increases the risk of cord prolapse, which can be a serious complication during the procedure. This situation demands careful attention to prevent potential complications and ensure the safety of the client and fetus. Choice A is incorrect as being in early labor does not pose the same level of risk as an unengaged presenting part. Choice B describes a client at 37 weeks with signs of early labor but does not indicate the same level of risk as an unengaged presenting part. Choice C involves a client at 1 cm cervical dilation and a 0 station with no mention of an unengaged presenting part, making it a less critical situation compared to an unengaged presentation, as in Choice D.

3. The client at 10 weeks' gestation is palpated with the fundus at 3 fingerbreadths above the pubic symphysis. The client reports nausea, vomiting, and scant dark brown vaginal discharge. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Collect a urine sample for urinalysis.
• B. Measure vital signs.
• C. Recommend bed rest.
• D. Obtain human chorionic gonadotropin levels.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a pregnant client with a fundal height greater than expected at 10 weeks and experiencing scant dark brown vaginal discharge, there is a concern for a molar pregnancy. Assessing human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) levels is crucial in this situation to confirm or rule out this condition.

4. Upon admission to the prenatal clinic, a 23-year-old woman informs the nurse that her last menstrual period began on February 15, and that previously her periods were regular. Her pregnancy test is positive. What is this client's expected date of delivery (EDD)?

• A. November 22.
• B. November 8.
• C. December 22.
• D. October 22.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To determine the expected date of delivery (EDD) using Nägele's rule, add 7 days to the first day of the last menstrual period (LMP) which is February 15, resulting in February 22. Then, subtract 3 months from February 22, which gives November 22 as the estimated due date.

5. The healthcare provider is reviewing the serum laboratory findings for a 5-day-old infant with congenital adrenal hyperplasia. Which laboratory result should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately?

• A. Bilirubin of 1.5 mg/dl.
• B. Glucose of 80 mg/dl.
• C. Potassium of 4.5 mEq/L.
• D. Sodium of 119 mEq/L.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Low sodium levels in congenital adrenal hyperplasia can indicate salt-wasting crisis, which is a life-threatening emergency requiring immediate medical attention. Monitoring sodium levels is crucial to prevent complications such as dehydration and shock in these patients.

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