HESI RN
HESI Maternity Test Bank
1. An infant with tetralogy of Fallot becomes acutely cyanotic and hyperneic. Which action should the nurse implement first?
- A. Place the infant in a knee-chest position.
- B. Administer morphine sulfate.
- C. Start intravenous fluids.
- D. Provide 100% oxygen by face mask.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a tetralogy of Fallot situation, placing the infant in a knee-chest position is the initial priority to help increase systemic vascular resistance, which reduces the right-to-left shunt and improves oxygenation. This position can assist in optimizing oxygen levels before considering other interventions. Administering morphine sulfate (choice B) is not the first-line treatment for tetralogy of Fallot crisis. Starting intravenous fluids (choice C) may be necessary but is not the priority in this situation. Providing 100% oxygen by face mask (choice D) may not fully address the underlying issue of decreased systemic vascular resistance that leads to cyanosis in tetralogy of Fallot.
2. A client at 32 weeks gestation is hospitalized with severe pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH), and magnesium sulfate is prescribed to control the symptoms. Which assessment finding indicates the therapeutic drug level has been achieved?
- A. 4+ reflexes
- B. Urinary output of 50 ml per hour
- C. A decrease in respiratory rate from 24 to 16
- D. A decreased body temperature
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A decrease in respiratory rate from 24 to 16 indicates that magnesium sulfate is effectively reducing central nervous system irritability, a desired therapeutic effect. This decrease in respiratory rate signifies that the drug has reached a therapeutic level to control symptoms of severe pregnancy-induced hypertension. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because 4+ reflexes, urinary output, and body temperature are not direct indicators of achieving a therapeutic level of magnesium sulfate for controlling PIH symptoms.
3. The nurse is conducting postpartum teaching with a mother who is breastfeeding her infant. When discussing birth control which method should the nurse recommend to this client as best for her to use in preventing unwanted pregnancy?
- A. Breastfeed exclusively at least every 3 to 4 hours.
- B. Condoms and contraceptive foam or gel.
- C. Rhythm method (natural family planning).
- D. Combined estrogen-progesterone oral contraceptives.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Condoms and contraceptive foam or gel are safe options for breastfeeding mothers and do not affect milk supply.
4. The LPN/LVN is counseling a woman who wants to become pregnant. The woman tells the nurse that she has a 36-day menstrual cycle and the first day of her last menstrual period was January 8. The nurse calculates that the woman's next fertile period is
- A. January 14-15.
- B. January 22-23.
- C. January 30-31.
- D. February 6-7.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: To determine the fertile period, subtract 14 days from the length of the woman's menstrual cycle. In this case, 36-14 = 22. Counting forward from the first day of the last menstrual period (January 8), the fertile period falls around January 30-31. This is because ovulation typically occurs approximately 14 days before the start of the next menstrual period, marking the fertile window for conception.
5. The LPN/LVN is preparing a client with a term pregnancy who is in active labor for an amniotomy. What equipment should the nurse have available at the client's bedside?
- A. Litmus paper.
- B. Fetal scalp electrode.
- C. A sterile glove.
- D. Needle and Thread
Correct answer: C
Rationale: For performing an amniotomy, the nurse should have a sterile glove to maintain asepsis and an amniotic hook to rupture the amniotic sac. Litmus paper is not required for this procedure, and a fetal scalp electrode is used for fetal monitoring, not for an amniotomy.
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