Nursing Elites

1. A neonate with congenital adrenal hypoplasia (CAH) presents with ambiguous genitalia. What is the primary nursing consideration when supporting the parents of a child with this anomaly?

• A. Discuss the need for cortisol and aldosterone replacement therapy after discharge
• B. Support the parents in their decision regarding the sex assignment of their child
• C. Offer information about ultrasonography and genotyping to determine sex assignment
• D. Explain that corrective surgical procedures consistent with sex assignment can be delayed

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Supporting the parents in their decision regarding the sex assignment of their child is crucial as it respects the parental role in making this important decision and helps provide emotional support during a challenging time. The primary focus should be on helping the parents navigate the complexities and implications of determining the sex assignment for their child with ambiguous genitalia.

2. The healthcare provider prescribes oxytocin 2 milliunits/minute to induce labor for a client at 41-weeks gestation. The nurse initiates an infusion of Ringer’s Lactate solution 1000 mL with oxytocin 10 units. How many mL/hour should the nurse program the infusion pump?

• A. 12 mL/hour
• B. 2 mL/hour
• C. 22 mL/hour
• D. 42 mL/hour

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the infusion rate in mL/hour, first, convert 2 milliunits/minute to milliunits/hour by multiplying by 60 to get 120 milliunits/hour. Then, calculate the mL/hour using the formula: milliunits/hour (120) × total volume (1000 mL) ÷ units in IV solution (10 units) = 1200 mL/hour. Therefore, the nurse should program the infusion pump to deliver 12 mL/hour to provide the prescribed dose of oxytocin. Choice B is incorrect as it does not reflect the correct calculation. Choice C is incorrect as it is not derived from the correct formula. Choice D is incorrect as it is not the result of the accurate calculation based on the provided information.

3. After a client delivered vaginally 2 days ago, what information should you share with her if she wants to resume using her diaphragm for birth control?

• A. The diaphragm is the most effective form of contraception.
• B. The diaphragm must be refitted after childbirth.
• C. Vaseline lubricant should be used when inserting the diaphragm.
• D. The diaphragm should be inserted 2 to 4 hours before intercourse.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: After childbirth, the diaphragm must be refitted to ensure a proper fit and effectiveness. Changes in the body post-delivery can affect the fit of the diaphragm, making it necessary to get refitted. Choice A is incorrect because while the diaphragm can be effective, it is not the most effective form of contraception. Choice C is incorrect because oil-based lubricants like Vaseline can damage latex diaphragms. Choice D is incorrect because the diaphragm should be inserted no more than 2 hours before intercourse, not 2 to 4 hours.

4. The healthcare provider is preparing to administer phytonadione to a newborn. Which statement made by the parents indicates understanding why the healthcare provider is administering this medication?

• A. Prevent hemorrhagic disorders.
• B. Help an immature liver.
• C. Improve insufficient dietary intake.
• D. Stimulate the immune system.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Prevent hemorrhagic disorders.' Phytonadione (vitamin K) is administered to newborns to prevent hemorrhagic disease by promoting blood clotting. Newborns are born with low levels of vitamin K, which is essential for blood clotting, hence the administration to prevent hemorrhagic disorders. Choice B is incorrect because phytonadione is not given to help an immature liver but to supply vitamin K. Choice C is incorrect as phytonadione is not administered to improve dietary intake but to provide essential vitamin K. Choice D is incorrect as phytonadione does not stimulate the immune system but helps with blood clotting.

5. A 4-year-old boy presents with a rash and is diagnosed with varicella (chickenpox). What is the most appropriate intervention to manage this condition?

• A. Administer oral acyclovir.
• B. Apply calamine lotion to soothe itching.
• C. Encourage scratching to relieve itching.
• D. Encourage bed rest to avoid spreading the rash.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most appropriate intervention for managing varicella (chickenpox) in a 4-year-old child is to apply calamine lotion to soothe itching. Calamine lotion helps alleviate the itching associated with the chickenpox rash, providing relief to the child. It is important to discourage scratching to prevent complications such as scarring or secondary bacterial infections. Encouraging bed rest can be beneficial for comfort but is not the primary intervention to manage chickenpox.

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