HESI RN
Maternity HESI Quizlet
1. A neonate with congenital adrenal hypoplasia (CAH) presents with ambiguous genitalia. What is the primary nursing consideration when supporting the parents of a child with this anomaly?
- A. Discuss the need for cortisol and aldosterone replacement therapy after discharge
 - B. Support the parents in their decision regarding the sex assignment of their child
 - C. Offer information about ultrasonography and genotyping to determine sex assignment
 - D. Explain that corrective surgical procedures consistent with sex assignment can be delayed
 
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Supporting the parents in their decision regarding the sex assignment of their child is crucial as it respects the parental role in making this important decision and helps provide emotional support during a challenging time. The primary focus should be on helping the parents navigate the complexities and implications of determining the sex assignment for their child with ambiguous genitalia.
2. The nurse is caring for a postpartum client who is exhibiting symptoms of a spinal headache 24 hours following the delivery of a normal newborn. Prior to the anesthesiologist's arrival on the unit, which action should the nurse perform?
- A. Apply an abdominal binder.
 - B. Cleanse the spinal injection site.
 - C. Insert an indwelling Foley catheter.
 - D. Place procedure equipment at the bedside.
 
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a postpartum client exhibiting symptoms of a spinal headache, applying an abdominal binder is a priority action. The abdominal binder can help reduce the severity of a spinal headache by increasing intra-abdominal pressure, which may relieve pressure on the dural sac and alleviate symptoms. This intervention can be performed promptly by the nurse to provide immediate relief while waiting for further evaluation and management by the anesthesiologist. Cleansing the spinal injection site (Choice B) is not the priority in this situation as the headache is likely due to a dural puncture during epidural anesthesia rather than infection. Inserting an indwelling Foley catheter (Choice C) and placing procedure equipment at the bedside (Choice D) are not the appropriate actions to address a spinal headache and should not take precedence over applying an abdominal binder.
3. A 4-year-old boy presents with a rash and is diagnosed with varicella (chickenpox). What is the most appropriate intervention to manage this condition?
- A. Administer oral acyclovir.
 - B. Apply calamine lotion to soothe itching.
 - C. Encourage scratching to relieve itching.
 - D. Encourage bed rest to avoid spreading the rash.
 
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The most appropriate intervention for managing varicella (chickenpox) in a 4-year-old child is to apply calamine lotion to soothe itching. Calamine lotion helps alleviate the itching associated with the chickenpox rash, providing relief to the child. It is important to discourage scratching to prevent complications such as scarring or secondary bacterial infections. Encouraging bed rest can be beneficial for comfort but is not the primary intervention to manage chickenpox.
4. A 10-year-old is admitted to the orthopedic unit with a diagnosis of slipped femoral capital epiphysis (SFCE). What focus should the nurse include in this child’s plan of care?
- A. Ambulation with a walking cast.
 - B. Pin and incision care after surgery.
 - C. Use of injections for pain control.
 - D. Administration of growth hormone.
 
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In the case of slipped femoral capital epiphysis, surgical intervention is often required. Post-surgery care is crucial to prevent complications such as infection and ensure proper healing. This care includes monitoring and managing pin and incision sites for signs of infection, promoting wound healing, and preventing postoperative complications. The focus on pin and incision care is essential for the child's recovery and overall well-being.
5. A community health nurse visits a family in which a 16-year-old unmarried daughter is pregnant with her first child and is at 32-weeks gestation. The client tells the nurse that she has been having intermittent back pain since the night before. What is the priority nursing intervention?
- A. Ask the client’s mother to call an ambulance for transport to the hospital immediately.
 - B. Determine what physical activities the client has performed for the past 24 hours.
 - C. Teach the client how to perform pelvic rock exercises and observe for correct feedback.
 - D. Ask the client if she has experienced any recent changes in vaginal discharge.
 
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The priority nursing intervention in this situation is to ask the client if she has experienced any recent changes in vaginal discharge. Changes in vaginal discharge can indicate preterm labor, making it crucial to assess promptly. This information will help determine if the client needs immediate medical attention and appropriate interventions to prevent preterm birth and ensure the well-being of the mother and the baby. Option A is not the priority as back pain alone does not warrant immediate ambulance transport. Option B is less relevant in this context as the focus should be on immediate concerns related to pregnancy. Option C is not the priority as addressing back pain should come after ruling out urgent pregnancy-related issues.
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