Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider prescribes Amoxicillin 500mg PO every 8hrs for a child who weighs 22 pounds. The available suspension is labeled Amoxicillin Suspension 250mg/5ml. The recommended maximum dose is 50mg/kg/24hr. How many mL should the nurse administer in a single dose based on the child’s weight?

• A. 10mL
• B. 15mL
• C. 7.5mL
• D. 5mL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the dose for the child weighing 22 pounds, first convert the weight to kg: 22 lbs ÷ 2.2 = 10 kg. The maximum dose based on weight would be 10 kg × 50 mg/kg/24hr = 500 mg/24hr. Since the medication is prescribed every 8 hours, the dose for each administration would be 500 mg ÷ 3 doses = 166.67 mg. As the available suspension is 250mg/5ml, the nurse should administer 166.67 mg ÷ 250 mg/mL = 0.67 mL per dose. However, since it's not practical to administer a fraction of a milliliter, the nurse should round up to the nearest appropriate dose, which is 10mL.

2. At 14-weeks gestation, a client arrives at the Emergency Center complaining of a dull pain in the right lower quadrant of her abdomen. The LPN/LVN obtains a blood sample and initiates an IV. Thirty minutes after admission, the client reports feeling a sharp abdominal pain and shoulder pain. Assessment findings include diaphoresis, a heart rate of 120 beats/minute, and a blood pressure of 86/48. Which action should the nurse implement next?

• A. Check the hematocrit results.
• B. Administer pain medication.
• C. Increase the rate of IV fluids.
• D. Monitor the client for contractions.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The client's symptoms suggest hypovolemic shock, possibly due to an ectopic pregnancy. Increasing IV fluids is crucial to stabilize the client by improving blood pressure and perfusion. This intervention helps address the underlying issue of hypovolemia and supports the client's hemodynamic status, which takes priority in this emergent situation.

3. The LPN/LVN is providing discharge teaching for a client who is 24 hours postpartum. The nurse explains to the client that her vaginal discharge will change from red to pink and then to white. The client asks, 'What if I start having red bleeding after it changes?' What should the nurse instruct the client to do?

• A. Reduce activity level and notify the healthcare provider.
• B. Go to bed and assume a knee-chest position.
• C. Massage the uterus and go to the emergency room.
• D. Do not worry as this is a normal occurrence.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: If the client experiences a return to red bleeding after transitioning to pink and white, it may indicate possible complications like hemorrhage or retained placental fragments. Instructing the client to reduce activity level and promptly notify the healthcare provider is crucial for timely evaluation and management of these potentially serious postpartum complications. Choice B is incorrect as assuming a knee-chest position is not the appropriate action for red bleeding postpartum. Choice C is incorrect as massaging the uterus without professional assessment can be dangerous. Choice D is incorrect because red bleeding after transitioning is not normal and should be evaluated promptly.

4. A 5-year-old child is admitted to the pediatric unit with fever and pain secondary to a sickle cell crisis. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Obtain a culture of any sputum or wound drainage
• B. Initiate normal saline IV at 50 ml/hr
• C. Administer a loading dose of penicillin IM
• D. Administer the initial dose of folic acid PO

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a child with a sickle cell crisis, the priority intervention is to initiate normal saline IV at 50 ml/hr to manage dehydration and help alleviate pain. This intervention helps improve hydration status and supports the circulation of sickled red blood cells, reducing the risk of vaso-occlusive episodes and associated pain. Obtaining a culture of any sputum or wound drainage (Choice A) may be necessary but is not the initial priority. Administering a loading dose of penicillin IM (Choice C) is important but not the first intervention. Administering the initial dose of folic acid PO (Choice D) is beneficial but does not address the immediate need for hydration in a sickle cell crisis.

5. A 4-week-old premature infant has been receiving epoetin alfa (Epogen) for the last three weeks. Which assessment finding indicates to the healthcare provider that the drug is effective?

• A. Slowly increasing urinary output over the last week.
• B. Respiratory rate changes from the 40s to the 60s.
• C. Changes in apical heart rate from the 180s to the 140s.
• D. Change in indirect bilirubin from 12 mg/dl to 8 mg/dl.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Epoetin alfa stimulates erythropoiesis, leading to an increase in red blood cell production and improving oxygen-carrying capacity. As the oxygenation status improves, there is a reduction in heart rate. Therefore, changes in apical heart rate from the 180s to the 140s indicate that the drug is effective. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not directly reflect the expected outcome of epoetin alfa therapy. Increasing urinary output, changes in respiratory rate, and decreasing bilirubin levels are not primary indicators of the drug's effectiveness in this context.

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