NCLEX-PN
Nclex 2024 Questions
1. The client returns to the unit from surgery with a blood pressure of 90/50, pulse 132, respirations 30. Which action by the nurse should receive priority?
- A. Continue monitoring the vital signs
- B. Contact the physician
- C. Ask the client how they feel
- D. Ask the LPN to continue post-op care
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The priority action for the nurse is to contact the physician immediately due to the client's abnormal vital signs. A blood pressure of 90/50, pulse of 132, and respirations of 30 indicate instability and require prompt medical attention. Continuing to monitor vital signs, as in choice A, may lead to a delay in necessary interventions. Asking the client how they feel, as in choice C, provides subjective data and does not address the urgent need for medical intervention. Involving the LPN, as in choice D, is not appropriate in this critical situation where the client's condition is unstable and requires immediate physician assessment and intervention.
2. What significant event occurs in the orientation phase of a nurse-client relationship?
- A. establishment of roles
- B. identification of transference phenomenon
- C. placement of the client within their family structure
- D. client agreement that the nurse has the authority in the relationship
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In the orientation phase of a nurse-client relationship, the significant event is the identification of transference phenomenon. Transference phenomena are intensified in relationships with authority figures like nurses and physicians. Positive transferences may include a desire for affection and dependency, while negative transferences may involve hostility and competitiveness. It is crucial to recognize and address these transferences before progress and positive changes can be made in the working stage. The other choices are incorrect; the establishment of roles may occur in the working phase, placing the client within their family structure is not a key event in the orientation phase, and client agreement on the nurse's authority is not the primary focus during this phase.
3. Hormonal agents are used to treat some cancers. An example is:
- A. thyroxine to treat thyroid cancer.
- B. ACTH to treat adrenal carcinoma.
- C. estrogen antagonists to treat breast cancer.
- D. glucagon to treat pancreatic carcinoma.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Estrogen antagonists are commonly used to treat estrogen hormone-dependent cancers such as breast carcinoma. One well-known estrogen antagonist used in breast cancer therapy is Tamoxifen (Nolvadex). This drug, in combination with surgery and other chemotherapeutic drugs, reduces breast cancer recurrence by 30%. Estrogen antagonists can also be administered to prevent breast cancer in women who have a strong family history. Thyroxine is a thyroid hormone used to treat hypothyroidism, not thyroid cancer. ACTH is an anterior pituitary hormone that stimulates the adrenal glands to release glucocorticoids; it does not treat adrenal cancer. Glucagon is a pancreatic alpha cell hormone that stimulates glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis; it does not treat pancreatic cancer.
4. A client with cancer is admitted to the oncology unit. Stat lab values reveal Hgb 12.6, WBC 6500, K+ 1.9, uric acid 7.0, Na+ 136, and platelets 178,000. The nurse evaluates that the client is experiencing which of the following?
- A. Hypernatremia
- B. Hypokalemia
- C. Myelosuppression
- D. Leukocytosis
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Hypokalemia.' The potassium level of 1.9 indicates low potassium levels, a condition known as hypokalemia. The other lab values are within normal ranges: Hgb 12.6, WBC 6500, uric acid 7.0, Na+ 136, and platelets 178,000. Hypernatremia (choice A) refers to high sodium levels, which are not present in this case. Myelosuppression (choice C) is a decrease in bone marrow activity, which is not indicated by the lab values provided. Leukocytosis (choice D) is an increase in white blood cells, which is also not present based on the given values.
5. A 26-year-old single woman is knocked down and robbed while walking her dog one evening. Three months later, she presents at the crisis clinic, stating that she cannot put this experience out of her mind. She complains of nightmares, extreme fear of being outside or alone, and difficulty eating and sleeping. What is the best response by the nurse?
- A. "I will ask the physician to prescribe medication for you."?
- B. "That must have been a very difficult and frightening experience. It might be helpful to talk about it."?
- C. "In the future, you might walk your dog in a more populated area or hire someone else to take over this task."?
- D. "Have you thought of moving to a safer neighborhood?"?
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Choice B is the best response as it provides empathy and encourages the client to talk about her experience, which can be therapeutic. This approach validates the client's feelings and offers support. By acknowledging the difficulty and fear experienced by the client, the nurse opens the door for the client to express her emotions and begin the process of coping with the trauma. Choices A, C, and D do not address the emotional impact of the traumatic event or provide an opportunity for the client to express her feelings and concerns. Choice A immediately jumps to medication without exploring other supportive interventions. Choice C focuses on practical solutions without addressing the client's emotional needs. Choice D suggests a drastic solution without considering the client's emotional state or preferences.
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