Nursing Elites

1. The charge nurse on a cardiac unit tells you a patient is exhibiting signs of right-sided heart failure. Which of the following would not indicate right-sided heart failure?

• A. Muscle tetany
• B. Syncope
• C. Numbness
• D. Anxiety

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Anxiety.' Anxiety is not a typical sign of right-sided heart failure. Right-sided heart failure usually presents with symptoms such as muscle tetany, syncope, and numbness. Muscle tetany can occur due to electrolyte imbalances seen in heart failure. Syncope can result from decreased cardiac output, leading to decreased perfusion to the brain. Numbness can occur due to poor circulation. While anxiety can be present in patients with various medical conditions, it is more commonly associated with respiratory acidosis or other psychological factors rather than right-sided heart failure.

2. The drug of choice to decrease uric acid levels is:

• A. prednisone (Colisone)
• B. allopurinol (Zyloprim)
• C. indomethacin (Indocin)
• D. hydrochlorothiazide (HydroDiuril)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is allopurinol (Zyloprim) as it is a xanthine oxidase inhibitor that decreases uric acid formation. Allopurinol is commonly used to manage gout by lowering uric acid levels. Prednisone is a corticosteroid used to decrease inflammation, not to lower uric acid levels. Indomethacin is an analgesic, anti-inflammatory, and antipyretic agent, but it is not the drug of choice for lowering uric acid levels. Hydrochlorothiazide is a thiazide diuretic used to treat hypertension and edema, not to decrease uric acid levels.

3. A patient asks a nurse the following question: Exposure to TB can be best identified with which of the following procedures?

• A. Chest x-ray
• B. Mantoux test
• C. Breath sounds examination
• D. Sputum culture for Mycobacterium tuberculosis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The Mantoux test, also known as the tuberculin skin test, is the most appropriate and accurate test to identify exposure to TB. This test involves injecting a small amount of PPD tuberculin under the top layer of the skin, and a positive reaction indicates exposure to the TB bacteria. Choice A, a chest x-ray, is useful for detecting active TB disease but not exposure. Choice C, a breath sounds examination, is not a specific test for TB exposure. Choice D, a sputum culture for Mycobacterium tuberculosis, is used to diagnose active TB infection rather than exposure.

4. A patient had a pneumonectomy to the right lung performed 48 hours ago. Which of the following conditions most likely exists?

• A. Decreased breath sound volume
• B. Elevated tidal volume
• C. Elevated respiratory capacity
• D. Wheezing

Correct answer: A

Rationale: After a pneumonectomy, where a lung is surgically removed, there will be a decrease in breath sound volume on the affected side due to reduced airflow. This reduction in breath sound volume is expected as there is less lung tissue to produce sound. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Elevated tidal volume and respiratory capacity are not expected after a pneumonectomy, and wheezing is more commonly associated with conditions like asthma or bronchitis, not a recent pneumonectomy.

5. Which of the following nursing diagnoses is most appropriate for the client experiencing acute pancreatitis?

• A. Confusion
• B. Latex Allergy
• C. Acute Pain
• D. Constipation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Acute Pain is the most appropriate nursing diagnosis for a client experiencing acute pancreatitis because it is a common symptom associated with this condition. Pancreatitis often presents with severe abdominal pain that may radiate to the back. Confusion, Latex Allergy, and Constipation are not typically associated with acute pancreatitis. Confusion may occur in severe cases of pancreatitis with complications, but acute pain is the priority nursing diagnosis due to its prevalence and impact on the client's well-being.

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