Nursing Elites

1. The charge nurse on a cardiac unit tells you a patient is exhibiting signs of right-sided heart failure. Which of the following would not indicate right-sided heart failure?

• A. Muscle tetany
• B. Syncope
• C. Numbness
• D. Anxiety

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Anxiety.' Anxiety is not a typical sign of right-sided heart failure. Right-sided heart failure usually presents with symptoms such as muscle tetany, syncope, and numbness. Muscle tetany can occur due to electrolyte imbalances seen in heart failure. Syncope can result from decreased cardiac output, leading to decreased perfusion to the brain. Numbness can occur due to poor circulation. While anxiety can be present in patients with various medical conditions, it is more commonly associated with respiratory acidosis or other psychological factors rather than right-sided heart failure.

2. The nurse is caring for a client with full-thickness burns to the left arm and trunk. What is the priority for this client?

• A. Pain management
• B. Airway assessment
• C. Fluid volume status monitoring
• D. Risk for infection prevention

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Correct! With full-thickness burns, there is a significant risk of fluid loss through the burn wound and fluid shift, leading to hypovolemia and shock. Monitoring and maintaining the client's fluid volume status is crucial to prevent complications like hypovolemic shock. Pain management (Option A) is essential but not the priority in this situation. While airway assessment (Option B) is crucial, it is typically assessed first in clients with respiratory distress. Preventing infection (Option D) is important but managing fluid volume status takes precedence in the initial care of a client with full-thickness burns.

3. A client is admitted to the floor with vomiting and diarrhea for three days. She is receiving IV fluids at 200cc/hr via pump. A priority action for the nurse would be:

• A. Obtaining Intake and Output.
• B. Frequent lung assessments.
• C. Vital signs every shift.
• D. Monitoring the IV site for infiltration.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct priority action for the nurse would be monitoring the IV site for infiltration. The client is receiving IV fluids at a rapid rate, making it crucial to ensure that the IV site is intact and not causing any complications like infiltration, which can lead to tissue damage. While frequent lung assessments are important for detecting signs of fluid overload, in this case, ensuring the IV site's integrity takes precedence. Obtaining Intake and Output is relevant but not the priority over monitoring the IV site. Vital signs are essential, but given the situation, the immediate concern is the IV site's condition to prevent complications.

4. A client is admitted to telemetry with a diagnosis of diabetes at 3pm. At 10pm, the client is unresponsive. BP is 98/64, Resp 38, HR 100, T 97. The nurse notes a fruity smell on the client's breath. The nurse recognizes that the client is in which acid-base imbalance?

• A. Respiratory acidosis
• B. Respiratory alkalosis
• C. Metabolic acidosis
• D. Metabolic alkalosis

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Based on the client's unresponsiveness, fruity breath smell, and the presence of diabetes, the nurse can infer that the client is experiencing diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). DKA is a complication of diabetes characterized by the accumulation of ketones in the body, leading to metabolic acidosis. The fruity breath smell is due to the presence of ketones. Therefore, the correct acid-base imbalance in this scenario is metabolic acidosis. Choice A, respiratory acidosis, is incorrect because the scenario does not provide evidence of primary respiratory dysfunction. Choice B, respiratory alkalosis, is incorrect as the client's condition does not align with the typical causes and symptoms of respiratory alkalosis. Choice D, metabolic alkalosis, is incorrect as the symptoms and history provided do not suggest a state of metabolic alkalosis.

5. The client is undergoing progressive ambulation on the third day after a myocardial infarction. Which clinical manifestation would indicate that the client should not be advanced to the next level?

• A. Facial flushing
• B. A complaint of chest heaviness
• C. Heart rate increase of 10 beats/min
• D. Systolic blood pressure increase of 10 mm Hg

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is a complaint of chest heaviness. Onset of chest pain indicates myocardial ischemia, which can be life-threatening. Chest pain in a client post-myocardial infarction should be promptly evaluated, and the activity level should not be advanced. Choices A, C, and D are not the best options because facial flushing, a heart rate increase of 10 beats/min, and a systolic blood pressure increase of 10 mm Hg are not typical indicators of myocardial ischemia or necessarily contraindications for advancing activity levels in this context.

Similar Questions