NCLEX-PN
Kaplan NCLEX Question of The Day
1. Post thyroidectomy the nurse assesses for complications by performing which of the following assessments?
- A. Accu-Chek
- B. Chvostek's
- C. Ballottement
- D. Ice water colonic
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is Chvostek's. A positive Chvostek's and Trousseau's sign is indicative of tetany, which is associated with low calcium levels. This can occur if parathyroid glands are accidentally removed during thyroidectomy. Accu-Chek is a brand of blood glucose monitor used for checking blood sugar levels and is not relevant in this context. Ballottement is a technique used in physical examination to assess for fluid in the body, typically in the abdomen or joints. Ice water colonic is not a standard medical assessment and is not relevant to post-thyroidectomy complications.
2. The nurse is caring for a client admitted with Class III/IV Pulmonary Hypertension. The nurse explains to the client that Lanoxin is being administered to the client in order to:
- A. Manage peripheral edema
- B. Improve right ventricular function
- C. Increase pulmonary pressure
- D. Constrict the pulmonary vessels
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to improve right ventricular function. Lanoxin, also known as digoxin, is a cardiac glycoside that works by slowing the heart rate and increasing myocardial contractility, especially in the ventricles. This action helps improve the efficiency of the heart's pumping function, particularly the right ventricle in conditions like pulmonary hypertension. Choice A, managing peripheral edema, is not directly related to Lanoxin's mechanism of action. Choice C, increasing pulmonary pressure, is incorrect as Lanoxin is not used to increase pressure in the pulmonary circulation. Choice D, constricting the pulmonary vessels, is incorrect as Lanoxin does not cause vasoconstriction in the pulmonary vessels but rather acts on the heart's contractility.
3. A 13-year-old girl is admitted to the ER with lower right abdominal discomfort. What should the admitting nurse do first?
- A. Administer Loritab to the patient for pain relief.
- B. Place the patient in a right sidelying position for pressure relief.
- C. Start a Central Line.
- D. Provide pain reduction techniques without administering medication.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In a case of lower right abdominal discomfort, the first step should be to provide pain reduction techniques without administering medication. Administering pain medication or starting a central line should not be done without medical orders. Placing the patient in a right sidelying position may help with pressure relief, but addressing pain reduction techniques without medication is the initial priority in this scenario. It is essential to assess the patient further, consult with a healthcare provider, and follow the appropriate protocols before administering any medication or invasive procedures like starting a central line.
4. The client is admitted to the hospital following a motor vehicle accident and has sustained a closed chest wound. Which assessment finding is consistent with a flail chest?
- A. Biot's respirations
- B. Sucking sounds during respirations
- C. Paradoxical chest wall movement
- D. Hypotension and bradycardia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct assessment finding consistent with a flail chest is paradoxical chest wall movement. This occurs when a segment of the chest wall moves in the opposite direction to the rest of the chest during respiration. Biot's respirations (Choice A) are a pattern of breathing characterized by groups of quick, shallow inspirations followed by regular or irregular periods of apnea. Sucking sounds during respirations (Choice B) may indicate air entering or leaving the chest cavity through a wound. Hypotension and bradycardia (Choice D) may be present due to other factors such as shock, but they are not specific to a flail chest.
5. Levothyroxine (Synthroid) is the drug of choice for thyroid replacement therapy in clients with hypothyroidism because:
- A. it is chemically stable, nonallergenic, and can be administered orally once a day.
- B. it is available in a wide range of concentrations to meet individual client requirements.
- C. it is a prodrug of T3.
- D. it has a long half-life.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Levothyroxine (Synthroid) is the preferred medication for hypothyroidism due to its chemical stability, nonallergenic properties, and convenient once-daily oral administration. It is safe and effective with minimal side effects when appropriately dosed. Choice B is incorrect because while Levothyroxine is available in various concentrations, it is not the reason it is the drug of choice; the primary reason is its stability and nonallergenic nature. Choice C is wrong as Levothyroxine (T4) is not a prodrug of T3; it is converted to T3 in the body. Option D is inaccurate because Levothyroxine has a long half-life (around 7 days), enabling once-daily dosing, as opposed to a short half-life.
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