NCLEX-PN
Kaplan NCLEX Question of The Day
1. Post thyroidectomy the nurse assesses for complications by performing which of the following assessments?
- A. Accu-Chek
- B. Chvostek's
- C. Ballottement
- D. Ice water colonic
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is Chvostek's. A positive Chvostek's and Trousseau's sign is indicative of tetany, which is associated with low calcium levels. This can occur if parathyroid glands are accidentally removed during thyroidectomy. Accu-Chek is a brand of blood glucose monitor used for checking blood sugar levels and is not relevant in this context. Ballottement is a technique used in physical examination to assess for fluid in the body, typically in the abdomen or joints. Ice water colonic is not a standard medical assessment and is not relevant to post-thyroidectomy complications.
2. The schizophrenic client who is admitted to the hospital for possible bowel obstruction has an NG tube and complains of pain. What should the nurse do at this time?
- A. Decrease the stimuli and observe frequently
- B. Administer the PRN sedative
- C. Call the physician immediately
- D. Administer the PRN pain medication
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should administer the PRN (as needed) pain medication to address the schizophrenic client's complaint of pain. It is essential to provide relief and comfort to the client experiencing pain. Option A, decreasing stimuli and observing frequently, may not address the underlying cause of pain and delay relief. Option B, administering a sedative, does not target the pain but may mask symptoms. Option C, calling the physician immediately, while important in some situations, is not the most immediate action needed to alleviate the client's pain. Therefore, the most appropriate action at this time is to administer the PRN pain medication to help alleviate the client's discomfort.
3. One day postoperative, the client complains of dyspnea, and his respiratory rate (RR) is 35, slightly labored, and there are no breath sounds in the lower-right base. The nurse should suspect:
- A. cor pulmonale.
- B. atelectasis.
- C. pulmonary embolism.
- D. cardiac tamponade.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is atelectasis. The absence of breath sounds in the lower-right base is a key finding in atelectasis, which occurs when a portion of the lung collapses. The other symptoms such as dyspnea and increased respiratory rate could be present in various pulmonary conditions. Cor pulmonale is typically associated with chronic lung disease, pulmonary embolism presents with sudden onset dyspnea and chest pain, and cardiac tamponade manifests with Beck's triad of hypotension, distended neck veins, and muffled heart sounds.
4. A 32-year-old male with a complaint of dizziness has an order for Morphine via IV. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Check the patient's chest x-ray results.
- B. Retake vitals including blood pressure.
- C. Perform a neurological screening on the patient.
- D. Request the physician on-call to assess the patient.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse to take in this situation is to retake the patient's vitals, including blood pressure. Dizziness can be a sign of hypotension, which may be a contraindication for administering Morphine. Checking the chest x-ray results (Choice A) would not be the priority in this case as addressing the dizziness is more urgent. Performing a neurological screening (Choice C) may be important but not the first step when a patient presents with dizziness and an order for Morphine. Requesting the physician to assess the patient (Choice D) should come after the initial assessment and vitals retake.
5. The client is admitted with a period of unobserved loss of consciousness and now has an EEG scheduled this morning. What should the nurse implement?
- A. Keep NPO and hold medication.
- B. Hold sedatives, but allow the client to have breakfast and give other medicines.
- C. Administer medications, but hold anticonvulsants.
- D. Give additional fluids and some caffeine prior to the test.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Prior to an EEG, it is essential for the client to eat to prevent a drop in blood sugar levels. The nurse should hold sedatives but allow the client to have breakfast and administer other necessary medications. Holding sedatives is crucial to ensure accurate EEG results, while providing breakfast helps maintain stable blood sugar levels. Administering other medications, excluding sedatives, is important for the client's overall care. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because keeping the client NPO and holding medications, administering medications but holding anticonvulsants, and giving additional fluids and caffeine are not appropriate actions before an EEG.
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