Nursing Elites

1. In which of the following types of spontaneous abortions would the nurse assess dark brown vaginal discharge and a negative pregnancy test?

• A. Threatened
• B. Imminent
• C. Missed
• D. Incomplete

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Dark brown vaginal discharge and a negative pregnancy test are characteristic of a missed abortion. In a missed abortion, the fetus has died, but the products of conception are retained in the uterus. This can lead to symptoms like dark brown vaginal discharge as the body tries to expel the nonviable pregnancy. A threatened abortion is characterized by vaginal bleeding without dilation of the cervix, and the pregnancy remains viable. Imminent abortion involves cervical dilation and effacement with no passage of tissue. In an incomplete abortion, only part of the products of conception are expelled, leading to persistent bleeding and cramping.

2. Which one is not a barrier method for birth control?

• A. Diaphragms
• B. Cervical caps
• C. Vaults
• D. Intrauterine Devices (IUDs)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Intrauterine Devices (IUDs). Barrier methods of birth control physically block sperm from reaching the egg. Diaphragms, cervical caps, and vaults are examples of barrier methods as they create a barrier that prevents sperm from reaching the cervix. In contrast, IUDs work by altering the cervical mucus and uterine lining, making it difficult for sperm to reach the egg, but they do not physically block sperm like barrier methods do.

3. Which of the following are outcomes of an ectopic pregnancy EXCEPT?

• A. Tubal abortion
• B. Tubal rupture
• C. Intra-tubal bleeding
• D. Secondary abdominal pregnancy

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Ectopic pregnancy occurs when a fertilized egg implants outside the uterus. Common outcomes include tubal abortion (spontaneous termination of ectopic pregnancy within the fallopian tube), tubal rupture (rupture of the fallopian tube leading to internal bleeding), and intra-tubal bleeding. Secondary abdominal pregnancy, on the other hand, is a rare occurrence and not a typical outcome of an ectopic pregnancy. It involves the implantation of a fertilized egg in the peritoneal cavity rather than the uterus.

4. In 1989, the national population policy was formally launched targeting:

• A. Reducing population growth
• B. Making family planning services available
• C. Making services accessible and affordable to all eligible users
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because the national population policy launched in 1989 aimed at reducing population growth by making family planning services available, accessible, and affordable to all eligible users. Choice A is incorrect as it does not encompass the full scope of the policy objectives. Choice B is also incomplete as it focuses solely on availability without considering accessibility and affordability. Choice C is partially correct but lacks the comprehensive approach of the national population policy.

5. Which of the following hormone ratios is MOST likely to be increased in a patient with PCOS?

• A. Progesterone/estrogen
• B. LH/FSH
• C. FSH/LH
• D. Glucagon/insulin

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In patients with Polycystic Ovary Syndrome (PCOS), the LH/FSH ratio is most likely to be increased. This hormonal imbalance is a key characteristic of PCOS, where elevated LH levels relative to FSH contribute to the pathophysiology of the condition. Choice A, progesterone/estrogen ratio, is not typically a defining feature of PCOS. Choice C, FSH/LH ratio, is the reverse of what is commonly observed in PCOS. Choice D, glucagon/insulin ratio, is not directly related to the hormonal imbalances seen in PCOS.

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