Nursing Elites

1. In the staging process of Hodgkin's disease, what does Stage I indicate?

• A. Involvement of a single lymph node.
• B. Involvement of two or more lymph nodes on the same side of the diaphragm.
• C. Involvement of lymph node regions on both sides of the diaphragm.
• D. Involvement of diffuse disease of one or more extralymphatic organs.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the staging process of Hodgkin's disease, Stage I signifies the involvement of a single lymph node. This stage indicates localized disease with the disease being limited to a single lymph node or a group of adjacent nodes. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they describe more extensive involvement of lymph nodes, both sides of the diaphragm, or extralymphatic organs, which would correspond to higher stages in the staging system.

2. A patient has been taking spironolactone (Aldactone) to treat heart failure. The nurse will monitor for

• A. hyperkalemia.
• B. hypermagnesemia.
• C. hypocalcemia.
• D. hypoglycemia.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: hyperkalemia. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic commonly used in heart failure management. One of the major side effects of spironolactone is hyperkalemia, which is an elevated level of potassium in the blood. Monitoring for hyperkalemia is crucial as it can lead to serious cardiac arrhythmias. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Hypermagnesemia (choice B) is not typically associated with spironolactone use. Hypocalcemia (choice C) and hypoglycemia (choice D) are also not directly linked to the use of spironolactone in heart failure treatment.

3. A patient is admitted to the hospital for treatment of pneumonia after complaining of high fever and shortness of breath. The patient was not able to produce sputum for a culture. The nurse will expect the patient’s provider to order

• A. a broad-spectrum antibiotic.
• B. a narrow-spectrum antibiotic.
• C. multiple antibiotics.
• D. the pneumococcal vaccine.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario where the offending organism causing pneumonia is unknown due to the inability to produce sputum for culture, the appropriate choice is a broad-spectrum antibiotic. Broad-spectrum antibiotics are effective against a wide range of bacteria and are commonly used when the specific pathogen is unidentified. Narrow-spectrum antibiotics target specific types of bacteria and are chosen based on culture and sensitivity results. Using multiple antibiotics without a clear indication from culture and sensitivity testing can lead to antibiotic resistance and is not recommended in this situation. Additionally, the pneumococcal vaccine is preventive and does not treat an ongoing infection like pneumonia.

4. The client with peripheral artery disease has been prescribed clopidogrel (Plavix). The nurse understands that more teaching is necessary when the client states which of the following?

• A. I should not be surprised if I bruise more easily or if my gums bleed a little when brushing my teeth.
• B. It is important to take this medicine with food to enhance its effectiveness and minimize stomach upset.
• C. I should stop taking Plavix if it makes me feel weak and dizzy.
• D. The doctor prescribed this medicine to make my platelets less likely to stick together and help prevent clots from forming.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Weakness, dizziness, and headache are common adverse effects of Plavix and should be reported. It is essential to consult a physician before stopping Plavix as it plays a crucial role in preventing platelets from sticking together and forming clots. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Choice A is a common side effect of Plavix and does not indicate a need for further teaching. Choice B is incorrect because taking Plavix with or without food can affect its absorption and effectiveness. Choice D correctly explains the purpose of prescribing Plavix to prevent clot formation.

5. The nurse is caring for a patient who has had severe vomiting. The patient’s serum sodium level is 130 mEq/L. The nurse will expect the patient’s provider to order which treatment?

• A. Diuretic therapy
• B. Intravenous hypertonic 5% saline
• C. Intravenous normal saline 0.9%
• D. Oral sodium supplements

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the patient has hyponatremia with a serum sodium level of 130 mEq/L. For a serum sodium level between 125 and 135 mEq/L, the appropriate treatment is intravenous normal saline 0.9%. Normal saline helps to increase the sodium content in the vascular fluid. Diuretic therapy would exacerbate sodium and fluid depletion, which is not suitable for a patient already dehydrated from severe vomiting. Intravenous hypertonic 5% saline is typically reserved for severe hyponatremia with a serum sodium level below 120 mEq/L. Oral sodium supplements are not feasible in this case as the patient is vomiting and may not be able to tolerate oral intake easily.

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