Nursing Elites

1. In the staging process of Hodgkin's disease, what does Stage I indicate?

• A. Involvement of a single lymph node.
• B. Involvement of two or more lymph nodes on the same side of the diaphragm.
• C. Involvement of lymph node regions on both sides of the diaphragm.
• D. Involvement of diffuse disease of one or more extralymphatic organs.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the staging process of Hodgkin's disease, Stage I signifies the involvement of a single lymph node. This stage indicates localized disease with the disease being limited to a single lymph node or a group of adjacent nodes. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they describe more extensive involvement of lymph nodes, both sides of the diaphragm, or extralymphatic organs, which would correspond to higher stages in the staging system.

2. The best indicator that the client has learned how to give an insulin self-injection correctly is when the client can:

• A. Perform the procedure safely and correctly.
• B. Critique the nurse's performance of the procedure.
• C. Explain all steps of the procedure correctly.
• D. Correctly answer a post-test about the procedure.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The best indicator of learning is the ability to perform the procedure safely and correctly, demonstrating skill acquisition. Choice A is correct because the client's ability to perform the insulin self-injection safely and correctly shows practical understanding and application of the skill. Choice B is incorrect because critiquing the nurse's performance does not necessarily demonstrate the client's ability to carry out the procedure themselves. Choice C is incorrect as merely explaining the steps verbally does not confirm the client's practical execution of the task. Choice D is also incorrect as answering a post-test does not directly assess the client's ability to physically perform the insulin self-injection.

3. A client is scheduled for an arteriogram. The nurse should explain to the client that the arteriogram will confirm the diagnosis of occlusive arterial disease by:

• A. Showing the location of the obstruction and the collateral circulation.
• B. Scanning the affected extremity and identifying the areas of volume changes.
• C. Using ultrasound to estimate the velocity changes in the blood vessels.
• D. Determining how long the client can walk.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Showing the location of the obstruction and the collateral circulation. An arteriogram is a diagnostic procedure that involves injecting a contrast agent to visualize the blood vessels and identify the location of any obstructions. This helps confirm the diagnosis of occlusive arterial disease by showing where the blockage is located and how collateral circulation is compensating for the reduced blood flow. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because scanning the extremity, estimating velocity changes with ultrasound, or determining walking distance are not the primary purposes of an arteriogram in diagnosing occlusive arterial disease.

4. A client who has received sodium bicarbonate in large amounts is at risk for metabolic alkalosis. For which of the following signs and symptoms does the nurse assess this client?

• A. Disorientation and dyspnea
• B. Drowsiness, headache, and tachypnea
• C. Tachypnea, dizziness, and paresthesias
• D. Dysrhythmias and decreased respiratory rate and depth

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. A client with metabolic alkalosis may present with dysrhythmias and a decreased respiratory rate and depth as the body tries to compensate by retaining carbon dioxide. Options A, B, and C do not typically correlate with the signs and symptoms of metabolic alkalosis. Disorientation, dyspnea, drowsiness, headache, tachypnea, dizziness, and paresthesias are not commonly associated with metabolic alkalosis. Therefore, they are incorrect choices.

5. Prior to administering tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA), the nurse should assess the client for which of the following contraindications to administering the drug?

• A. Age over 60 years.
• B. History of cerebral hemorrhage.
• C. History of heart failure.
• D. Cigarette smoking.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: History of cerebral hemorrhage. A history of cerebral hemorrhage is a contraindication to t-PA administration because of the increased risk of bleeding. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Age over 60 years is not a contraindication for t-PA administration. While older age may pose some risks, it is not an absolute contraindication. History of heart failure is not a direct contraindication to t-PA administration. Cigarette smoking, while a risk factor for cardiovascular disease, is not a specific contraindication for t-PA administration.

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