in the staging process the designations a and b signify that symptoms were or were not present when hodgkins disease was found respectively the roman
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI Medical Surgical Exam

1. In the staging process of Hodgkin's disease, what does Stage I indicate?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the staging process of Hodgkin's disease, Stage I signifies the involvement of a single lymph node. This stage indicates localized disease with the disease being limited to a single lymph node or a group of adjacent nodes. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they describe more extensive involvement of lymph nodes, both sides of the diaphragm, or extralymphatic organs, which would correspond to higher stages in the staging system.

2. The client is scheduled to begin continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD). Which of the following statements by the client indicates that more teaching is required?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Skipping a dialysis session can lead to serious complications as it disrupts the treatment schedule and can result in the accumulation of waste products and fluid in the body. The client must understand the importance of adhering to the prescribed dialysis regimen to maintain optimal health. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because limiting protein intake, increasing potassium-rich foods, and taking medications do not pose the same risk as skipping dialysis sessions. These aspects are important in the management of peritoneal dialysis but do not outweigh the critical need for regular dialysis sessions to prevent complications.

3. A healthcare professional is reviewing laboratory results for a client who is at risk for nephrotoxicity due to medications. Which of the following serum creatinine results does the healthcare professional document as normal?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The normal serum creatinine level typically ranges from 0.6 to 1.3 mg/dL. A result of 1.0 mg/dL falls within this normal range. A serum creatinine level of 0.2 mg/dL is abnormally low and may indicate decreased muscle mass or malnutrition. On the other hand, results of 2.8 mg/dL and 3.9 mg/dL are elevated, signifying impaired kidney function and potential nephrotoxicity from medications.

4. An unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) reports to the nurse that a client with a postoperative wound infection has a temperature of 103°F (39.4°C), blood pressure of 90/70, pulse of 124 beats/minute, and respirations of 28 breaths/minute. When assessing the client, findings include mottled skin appearance and confusion. Which action should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Initiating an infusion of IV fluids is the priority action to stabilize blood pressure in a client with signs of sepsis. Intravenous fluids help maintain perfusion to vital organs and prevent further deterioration. Option A is not the immediate priority as stabilizing the client's condition can be initiated in the current setting. Option C, assessing the client's core temperature, is important but not the most critical action at this time. Option D, obtaining a wound specimen for culture, is important for identifying the causative organism but is not the first priority in managing a client with signs of sepsis.

5. A client with diabetes mellitus is scheduled to have blood drawn for a fasting blood glucose determination in the morning. What does the nurse tell the client is acceptable to consume on the morning of the test?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Water. A client scheduled for a fasting blood glucose test should only consume water after midnight to ensure accurate test results. Choosing options B, C, or D, which include tea, coffee, or clear liquids like apple juice, is incorrect as they may contain substances that can affect the blood glucose levels, leading to inaccurate test results.

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