Nursing Elites

1. In the staging process of Hodgkin's disease, what does Stage I indicate?

• A. Involvement of a single lymph node.
• B. Involvement of two or more lymph nodes on the same side of the diaphragm.
• C. Involvement of lymph node regions on both sides of the diaphragm.
• D. Involvement of diffuse disease of one or more extralymphatic organs.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the staging process of Hodgkin's disease, Stage I signifies the involvement of a single lymph node. This stage indicates localized disease with the disease being limited to a single lymph node or a group of adjacent nodes. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they describe more extensive involvement of lymph nodes, both sides of the diaphragm, or extralymphatic organs, which would correspond to higher stages in the staging system.

2. A client has undergone insertion of a permanent pacemaker. When developing a discharge teaching plan, the nurse writes a goal of, 'The client will verbalize symptoms of pacemaker failure.' Which symptoms are most important to teach the client?

• A. Facial flushing.
• B. Fever.
• C. Pounding headache.
• D. Feelings of dizziness.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'D: Feelings of dizziness.' Feelings of dizziness may occur as a result of a decreased heart rate, leading to decreased cardiac output, which can be an indication of pacemaker failure. Teaching the client to recognize symptoms of decreased cardiac output, like dizziness, is crucial for early detection of pacemaker malfunction. Choices A, B, and C are less specific to pacemaker failure and are not commonly associated with this condition. Facial flushing, fever, and pounding headache are not typical signs of pacemaker failure and are not directly related to cardiac output, making them less relevant for teaching the client about pacemaker failure.

3. The patient is taking low-dose erythromycin prophylactically and will start cefaclor for treating an acute infection. The nurse should discuss this with the provider because taking both medications simultaneously can cause which effect?

• A. Decreased effectiveness of cefaclor.
• B. Increased effectiveness of cefaclor.
• C. Decreased effectiveness of erythromycin.
• D. Increased effectiveness of erythromycin.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When erythromycin and cefaclor are taken together, erythromycin can inhibit the metabolism of cefaclor, leading to elevated cefaclor levels and potentially causing adverse effects. This results in a decrease in the effectiveness of cefaclor. Therefore, the nurse should discuss this potential drug interaction with the provider to consider an alternative treatment or adjust the dosages to prevent complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the concern lies with the effect on cefaclor when combined with erythromycin, not the effect on erythromycin itself.

4. A client with heart disease is on a continuous telemetry monitor and has developed sinus bradycardia. In determining the possible cause of the bradycardia, the nurse assesses the client's medication record. Which medication is most likely the cause of the bradycardia?

• A. Propranolol (Inderal).
• B. Captopril (Capoten).
• C. Furosemide (Lasix).
• D. Dobutamine (Dobutrex).

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Propranolol (Inderal) is a beta-adrenergic blocking agent that acts to decrease heart rate and contractility. Sinus bradycardia is a common side effect of beta blockers due to their negative chronotropic effect on the heart. Captopril (Capoten) is an ACE inhibitor used for hypertension and heart failure, not associated with causing bradycardia. Furosemide (Lasix) is a loop diuretic that can lead to electrolyte imbalances but not commonly linked to bradycardia. Dobutamine (Dobutrex) is a beta-1 adrenergic agonist that increases heart rate and contractility, making it an unlikely cause of bradycardia in this scenario.

5. The charge nurse of the medical-surgical unit is making staff assignments. Which staff member should be assigned to a client with chronic kidney disease who is exhibiting a low-grade fever and a pericardial friction rub?

• A. Registered nurse who just floated from the surgical unit
• B. Registered nurse who just floated from the dialysis unit
• C. Registered nurse who was assigned the same client yesterday
• D. Licensed practical nurse with 5 years of experience on this floor

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The client is exhibiting symptoms of pericarditis, which can occur with chronic kidney disease. Continuity of care is crucial to assess subtle changes in clients' conditions. Therefore, the registered nurse (RN) who previously cared for this client should be assigned again. Float nurses may lack knowledge of the unit and its clients, potentially leading to oversight of critical details. The licensed practical nurse, while experienced, may not possess the advanced assessment skills and education level of an RN to effectively evaluate and manage pericarditis in this client.

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