HESI RN
HESI Medical Surgical Practice Quiz
1. The patient is receiving acetazolamide (Diamox) for metabolic alkalosis and fluid overload. After taking the medication, the patient complains of right-sided flank pain. The nurse suspects that the patient has developed which condition?
- A. Gout
- B. Hemolytic anemia
- C. Metabolic acidosis
- D. Renal calculi
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Renal calculi. Acetazolamide, a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor, can lead to electrolyte imbalances and the formation of renal calculi. Right-sided flank pain is a classic symptom of renal calculi. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Gout is not typically associated with acetazolamide use. Hemolytic anemia and metabolic acidosis are not commonly linked to acetazolamide-induced side effects. Therefore, the patient's symptoms align more closely with the development of renal calculi.
2. The nurse is caring for a client who is scheduled for hemodialysis. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor closely before, during, and after the procedure?
- A. Hemoglobin level.
- B. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level.
- C. Creatinine level.
- D. Serum potassium level.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Serum potassium level. Before, during, and after hemodialysis, monitoring the serum potassium level is crucial to prevent hyperkalemia, a potentially life-threatening complication. Hemodialysis is done to remove waste products and excess electrolytes like potassium from the blood. Monitoring other laboratory values like hemoglobin, BUN, and creatinine is important in assessing kidney function and anemia, but serum potassium level requires close monitoring during hemodialysis due to the risk of rapid shifts that can lead to cardiac arrhythmias.
3. Prior to administering tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA), the nurse should assess the client for which of the following contraindications to administering the drug?
- A. Age over 60 years.
- B. History of cerebral hemorrhage.
- C. History of heart failure.
- D. Cigarette smoking.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: History of cerebral hemorrhage. A history of cerebral hemorrhage is a contraindication to t-PA administration because of the increased risk of bleeding. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Age over 60 years is not a contraindication for t-PA administration. While older age may pose some risks, it is not an absolute contraindication. History of heart failure is not a direct contraindication to t-PA administration. Cigarette smoking, while a risk factor for cardiovascular disease, is not a specific contraindication for t-PA administration.
4. Which client is at greatest risk for coronary artery disease?
- A. A 32-year-old female with mitral valve prolapse who quit smoking 10 years ago.
- B. A 43-year-old male with a family history of CAD and a cholesterol level of 158 (8.8 mmol/L).
- C. A 56-year-old male with an HDL of 60 (3.3 mmol/L) who takes atorvastatin.
- D. A 65-year-old female who is obese with an LDL of 188 (10.4 mmol/L).
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The 65-year-old female who is obese with a high LDL level of 188 (10.4 mmol/L) is at the greatest risk for coronary artery disease. Obesity and high LDL cholesterol levels are significant risk factors for developing coronary artery disease. While factors like mitral valve prolapse (choice A) and a family history of CAD (choice B) can contribute to the risk, they are not as significant as obesity and high LDL levels. Choice C, a 56-year-old male with high HDL and taking atorvastatin, is actually at lower risk due to the high HDL levels and being on statin therapy, which helps reduce cholesterol levels and lower the risk of coronary artery disease.
5. After teaching a client with renal cancer who is prescribed temsirolimus (Torisel), the nurse assesses the client’s understanding. Which statement made by the client indicates a correct understanding of the teaching?
- A. I will take this medication with food and plenty of water.
- B. I shall keep my appointment at the infusion center each week.
- C. I’ll limit my intake of green leafy vegetables while on this medication.
- D. I must not take this medication if I have an infection or am feeling ill.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Temsirolimus, also known as Torisel, is administered as a weekly intravenous infusion. This medication blocks protein needed for cell division, inhibiting cell cycle progression. It is not taken orally, so there is no need to take it with food or water. Keeping the weekly infusion center appointment is crucial for the client to receive the prescribed treatment effectively. Choice A is incorrect as temsirolimus is not taken with food or water. Choice C is incorrect because there is no need to limit the intake of green leafy vegetables while on this medication. Choice D is incorrect as having an infection or feeling ill does not prohibit the use of temsirolimus.
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