HESI RN
HESI Fundamentals Practice Exam
1. In completing a client's preoperative routine, the nurse finds that the operative permit is not signed. The client begins to ask more questions about the surgical procedure. Which action should the nurse take next?
- A. Witness the client's signature on the permit.
- B. Answer the client's questions about the surgery.
- C. Inform the surgeon that the operative permit is not signed and the client has questions about the surgery.
- D. Reassure the client that the surgeon will answer any questions before the anesthesia is administered.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The nurse should inform the surgeon promptly that the operative permit is not signed and the client has questions about the surgery. It is crucial for the surgeon to be aware of these issues as it is their responsibility to explain the procedure to the client and ensure that the necessary consent is obtained before proceeding with the surgery. Answering the client's questions directly (choice B) may not be appropriate as the surgeon is the one responsible for providing detailed information about the procedure. Witnessing the client's signature (choice A) is premature since the permit is not signed. Reassuring the client (choice D) is not the most appropriate action at this point; the priority is to involve the surgeon in addressing the unsigned permit and the client's questions.
2. The UAPs working on a chronic neuro unit ask the nurse to help them determine the safest way to transfer an elderly client with left-sided weakness from the bed to the chair. What method describes the correct transfer procedure for this client?
- A. Place the chair at a right angle to the bed on the client's left side before moving.
- B. Assist the client to a standing position, then place the right hand on the armrest.
- C. Have the client place the left foot next to the chair and pivot to the left before sitting.
- D. Move the chair parallel to the right side of the bed, and stand the client on the right foot.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct transfer procedure for an elderly client with left-sided weakness involves moving the chair parallel to the right side of the bed and standing the client on the right foot. Using the stronger side, the right side, for weight-bearing during the transfer is the safest approach to prevent falls or injuries. Placing the chair at a right angle to the bed on the client's left side before moving can lead to poor body mechanics and increase the risk of accidents. Assisting the client to a standing position and having the client pivot to the left are not recommended for a client with left-sided weakness as it can compromise safety and stability during the transfer.
3. What assessment finding places a client at risk for problems associated with impaired skin integrity?
- A. Scattered macules on the face
- B. Capillary refill of 5 seconds
- C. Smooth nail texture
- D. Presence of skin tenting
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. A capillary refill time greater than 3 seconds indicates poor perfusion, leading to impaired skin integrity. Delayed capillary refill can compromise blood flow to the skin, increasing the risk of pressure ulcers or wounds due to reduced tissue perfusion. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because scattered macules on the face, smooth nail texture, and presence of skin tenting are not direct indicators of impaired skin integrity or risk for skin problems.
4. When assessing a client with a nursing diagnosis of fluid volume deficit, the nurse notes that the client's skin over the sternum 'tents' when gently pinched. Which action should the nurse implement?
- A. Confirm the finding by further assessing the client for jugular vein distention.
- B. Offer the client high-protein snacks between regularly scheduled mealtimes.
- C. Continue the planned nursing interventions to restore the client's fluid volume.
- D. Change the plan of care to include interventions for impaired skin integrity.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When the nurse observes that the client's skin over the sternum 'tents' when gently pinched, it is a classic sign of fluid volume deficit. This finding indicates dehydration and the need to restore the client's fluid volume. Therefore, the appropriate action for the nurse is to continue the planned nursing interventions aimed at addressing the fluid deficit. Choice A is incorrect as jugular vein distention is associated with fluid overload, not deficit. Choice B is incorrect as offering high-protein snacks does not directly address the fluid volume deficit. Choice D is incorrect as the priority is to address the fluid deficit before addressing skin integrity issues.
5. The healthcare provider is preparing an older client for discharge. Which method is best for the provider to use when evaluating the client's ability to perform a dressing change at home?
- A. Determine the client's feelings about changing the dressing.
- B. Ask the client to write a description of the procedure.
- C. Have a family member evaluate the client's ability to change the dressing.
- D. Observe the client performing an unassisted dressing change.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Direct observation of the client performing the skill is the most effective method to assess the client's ability to independently change the dressing. This allows the healthcare provider to evaluate the client's technique, understanding, and readiness to perform the task at home. Choices A, B, and C are not as reliable as directly observing the client performing the dressing change. Determining the client's feelings may not accurately reflect their ability, asking the client to write about the procedure may not demonstrate their practical skills, and having a family member evaluate might not provide an accurate assessment of the client's ability.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access