Nursing Elites

1. How many drops per minute should a client weighing 182 pounds receive if a nurse mixes 50 mg of Nipride in 250 ml of D5W and plans to administer the solution at a rate of 5 mcg/kg/min? The drip factor is 60 gtt/ml.

• A. 31 gtt/min.
• B. 62 gtt/min.
• C. 93 gtt/min.
• D. 124 gtt/min.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To determine the drops per minute for the client, first convert the client's weight from pounds to kilograms: 182/2.2 = 82.73 kg. Calculate the dosage by multiplying 5 mcg by the client's weight in kg: 5 mcg/kg/min × 82.73 kg = 413.65 mcg/min. Find the concentration of the solution in mcg/ml by dividing 250 ml by 50,000 mcg (50 mg): 250 ml/50,000 mcg = 200 mcg/ml. As the client needs 413.65 mcg/min and the solution is 200 mcg/ml, the client should receive 2.07 ml per minute. Finally, using the drip factor of 60 gtt/ml, multiply the ml per minute by the drip factor: 60 gtt/ml × 2.07 ml/min = 124.28 gtt/min, which rounds to 124 gtt/min. Therefore, the client should receive 124 drops per minute. Choice D is the correct answer. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not reflect the accurate calculation based on the client's weight, dosage, concentration of the solution, and drip factor.

2. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of fluid volume excess. Which intervention should the nurse include in the client's plan of care?

• A. Encourage increased fluid intake.
• B. Place the client in a high Fowler's position.
• C. Measure the client's intake and output.
• D. Restrict dietary sodium intake.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Restricting dietary sodium intake (D) is the most critical intervention for a client with fluid volume excess to prevent further fluid retention. Encouraging increased fluid intake (A) would exacerbate the issue by adding more fluid to the body. Placing the client in a high Fowler's position (B) is more relevant for respiratory issues than fluid volume excess. While measuring intake and output (C) is important for assessing fluid balance, restricting sodium intake is the priority as it helps manage fluid levels more effectively by reducing fluid retention.

3. A client who is in hospice care complains of increasing amounts of pain. The healthcare provider prescribes an analgesic every four hours as needed. Which action should the nurse implement?

• A. Give analgesics on an around-the-clock schedule for pain management.
• B. Administer analgesic medication only when the pain becomes severe.
• C. Provide medication to keep the client comfortable without inducing sedation.
• D. Allow brief medication-free periods to promote comfort during daily activities.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most effective pain management strategy in hospice care involves administering analgesics on an around-the-clock schedule (A) to maintain pain control. Waiting until pain is severe before administering medication (B) is not ideal as it may lead to inadequate pain relief. While providing comfort is crucial in hospice care, sedation that prevents the client from interacting and experiencing their remaining time should be minimized. Therefore, keeping the client comfortable without excessive sedation (C) is preferred. Allowing for some periods without medication (D) may be appropriate but should not compromise the client's comfort and pain control.

4. An older adult male client is admitted to the medical unit following a fall at home. When undressing him, the nurse notes that he is wearing an adult diaper, and skin breakdown is obvious over his sacral area. What action should the nurse implement first?

• A. Establish a toileting schedule to decrease episodes of incontinence
• B. Complete a functional assessment of the client’s self-care abilities
• C. Apply a barrier ointment to intact areas that may be exposed to moisture
• D. Determine the size and depth of skin breakdown over the sacral area

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The initial step the nurse should take when faced with skin breakdown over the sacral area of the client is to determine the size and depth of the affected area. Assessing and documenting these aspects are crucial before initiating any treatment. This evaluation will guide the nurse in developing an appropriate care plan to address the skin breakdown effectively. Options A, B, and C are not the first steps to take in this situation. While establishing a toileting schedule and completing a functional assessment are important, assessing the size and depth of the skin breakdown is the priority to initiate proper treatment. Applying a barrier ointment without assessing the extent of the breakdown may not address the underlying issue effectively.

5. The client, who is newly diagnosed with arteriosclerosis and is obese, is being educated by the nurse on reducing the risk of a heart attack or stroke. Which health promotion brochure should the nurse provide to this client?

• A. Monitoring Your Blood Pressure at Home
• B. Smoking Cessation as a Lifelong Commitment
• C. Decreasing Cholesterol Levels Through Diet
• D. Stress Management for a Healthier You

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most significant risk factor contributing to arteriosclerosis is excess dietary fat, particularly saturated fat and cholesterol. Therefore, the most crucial brochure for the nurse to provide to the client focuses on decreasing cholesterol levels through diet to help reduce the risk of heart attack or stroke.

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