HESI RN
HESI Fundamentals Practice Exam
1. How many drops per minute should a client weighing 182 pounds receive if a nurse mixes 50 mg of Nipride in 250 ml of D5W and plans to administer the solution at a rate of 5 mcg/kg/min? The drip factor is 60 gtt/ml.
- A. 31 gtt/min.
- B. 62 gtt/min.
- C. 93 gtt/min.
- D. 124 gtt/min.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: To determine the drops per minute for the client, first convert the client's weight from pounds to kilograms: 182/2.2 = 82.73 kg. Calculate the dosage by multiplying 5 mcg by the client's weight in kg: 5 mcg/kg/min × 82.73 kg = 413.65 mcg/min. Find the concentration of the solution in mcg/ml by dividing 250 ml by 50,000 mcg (50 mg): 250 ml/50,000 mcg = 200 mcg/ml. As the client needs 413.65 mcg/min and the solution is 200 mcg/ml, the client should receive 2.07 ml per minute. Finally, using the drip factor of 60 gtt/ml, multiply the ml per minute by the drip factor: 60 gtt/ml × 2.07 ml/min = 124.28 gtt/min, which rounds to 124 gtt/min. Therefore, the client should receive 124 drops per minute. Choice D is the correct answer. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not reflect the accurate calculation based on the client's weight, dosage, concentration of the solution, and drip factor.
2. The client is weak from inactivity due to a 2-week hospitalization. In planning care for the client, which range of motion (ROM) exercises should the nurse include?
- A. Passive ROM exercises to all joints on all extremities four times a day.
- B. Active ROM exercises to both arms and legs two or three times a day.
- C. Active ROM exercises with weights twice a day, 20 repetitions each.
- D. Passive ROM exercises to the point of resistance and slightly beyond.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Active ROM exercises are preferred over passive ROM to restore strength. Performing them on both arms and legs two or three times a day is effective in promoting muscle strength and mobility without the need for external assistance. Choice A is incorrect as passive ROM exercises may not help in restoring strength. Choice C is not recommended as using weights may be too strenuous for a weak client. Choice D is incorrect as passive ROM exercises to the point of resistance and slightly beyond may cause discomfort or injury to the weak client.
3. A client with a diagnosis of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving oxygen via nasal cannula at 4 liters per minute. Which assessment finding indicates a need for immediate action?
- A. The client's respiratory rate is 14 breaths per minute.
- B. The client's oxygen saturation is 92%.
- C. The client reports shortness of breath.
- D. The client's respiratory rate is 24 breaths per minute.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A report of shortness of breath (C) indicates that the client is not tolerating the oxygen therapy well and may need an adjustment. Shortness of breath is a critical symptom in a client with COPD, as it signifies potential respiratory distress. A respiratory rate of 14 (A) is within an acceptable range for a client with COPD and does not require immediate action. An oxygen saturation of 92% (B) is slightly lower but still acceptable in COPD patients. Although a respiratory rate of 24 (D) is higher, it is not as immediately concerning as shortness of breath in this context.
4. What instruction should be provided for a UAP caring for a client with MRSA who has an order for contact precautions?
- A. Do not allow visitors until precautions are discontinued
- B. Wear sterile gloves when handling the client’s body fluids
- C. Have the client wear a mask whenever someone enters the room
- D. Don a gown and gloves when entering the room
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct instruction for a UAP caring for a client with MRSA under contact precautions is to don a gown and gloves when entering the client's room. This precaution is essential to prevent the spread of MRSA and protect both the client and the healthcare worker from potential infection. Choice A is incorrect because visitors should not be restricted solely based on contact precautions. Choice B is incorrect as wearing sterile gloves is not necessary, standard precautions with regular gloves are sufficient. Choice C is incorrect because the client wearing a mask is not a standard practice for contact precautions; it is the healthcare worker who should take preventive measures.
5. What is the most important action for the nurse to take when caring for a client with a spinal cord injury experiencing autonomic dysreflexia?
- A. Elevate the head of the bed to 45 degrees.
- B. Monitor the client's respiratory rate.
- C. Administer an antihypertensive medication.
- D. Assess the client's blood glucose level.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a client with autonomic dysreflexia, the most critical action is to elevate the head of the bed to 45 degrees (A). This positioning helps reduce blood pressure, which is essential in managing autonomic dysreflexia. Monitoring the client's respiratory rate (B) is important for overall assessment but not the priority in this situation. Administering an antihypertensive medication (C) without addressing the positioning issue first can lead to further complications. Assessing the client's blood glucose level (D) is not directly related to autonomic dysreflexia and is not the initial priority in this scenario.
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