the nurse mixes 50 mg of nipride in 250 ml of d5w and plans to administer the solution at a rate of 5 mcgkgmin to a client weighing 182 pounds using a
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HESI RN

HESI Fundamentals Practice Exam

1. How many drops per minute should a client weighing 182 pounds receive if a nurse mixes 50 mg of Nipride in 250 ml of D5W and plans to administer the solution at a rate of 5 mcg/kg/min? The drip factor is 60 gtt/ml.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To determine the drops per minute for the client, first convert the client's weight from pounds to kilograms: 182/2.2 = 82.73 kg. Calculate the dosage by multiplying 5 mcg by the client's weight in kg: 5 mcg/kg/min × 82.73 kg = 413.65 mcg/min. Find the concentration of the solution in mcg/ml by dividing 250 ml by 50,000 mcg (50 mg): 250 ml/50,000 mcg = 200 mcg/ml. As the client needs 413.65 mcg/min and the solution is 200 mcg/ml, the client should receive 2.07 ml per minute. Finally, using the drip factor of 60 gtt/ml, multiply the ml per minute by the drip factor: 60 gtt/ml × 2.07 ml/min = 124.28 gtt/min, which rounds to 124 gtt/min. Therefore, the client should receive 124 drops per minute. Choice D is the correct answer. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not reflect the accurate calculation based on the client's weight, dosage, concentration of the solution, and drip factor.

2. The nurse is completing a client's preoperative routine and finds that the operative permit is not signed. The client begins to ask more questions about the surgical procedure. Which action should the nurse take next?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should inform the surgeon immediately that the operative permit is not signed and that the client has questions about the surgery. It is crucial for the surgeon to be aware of the situation so they can address the client's concerns, explain the procedure, and obtain the necessary signed permit before proceeding with the surgery. This ensures informed consent and compliance with preoperative protocols.

3. The healthcare professional is using the Glasgow Coma Scale to perform a neurologic assessment. A comatose client winces and pulls away from a painful stimulus. What action should the healthcare professional take next?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The client's response to a painful stimulus indicates a purposeful reaction, which should be accurately documented as per the assessment findings. This documentation is essential for ongoing monitoring and communication of the client's condition to the healthcare team.

4. While instructing a male client's wife in the performance of passive range-of-motion exercises to his contracted shoulder, the nurse observes that she is holding his arm above and below the elbow. What nursing action should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The wife is correctly performing the passive range-of-motion exercises by holding the arm above and below the elbow. The nurse should acknowledge this correct technique (A). It is essential to keep the joint uncovered (B) during exercises, while ensuring the rest of the body remains covered for warmth and privacy. Choices (C) and (D) do not provide optimal support to the joint for effective movement.

5. Which intervention is most important to include in the plan of care for a client at high risk for the development of postoperative thrombus formation?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Thrombus formation is a risk for clients who are immobile postoperatively. Encouraging frequent ambulation helps to prevent stasis in the lower extremities, reducing the risk of thrombus formation. This intervention promotes circulation and prevents blood clot formation, making it the most important intervention in this situation.

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