Nursing Elites

1. How many drops per minute should a client weighing 182 pounds receive if a nurse mixes 50 mg of Nipride in 250 ml of D5W and plans to administer the solution at a rate of 5 mcg/kg/min? The drip factor is 60 gtt/ml.

• A. 31 gtt/min.
• B. 62 gtt/min.
• C. 93 gtt/min.
• D. 124 gtt/min.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To determine the drops per minute for the client, first convert the client's weight from pounds to kilograms: 182/2.2 = 82.73 kg. Calculate the dosage by multiplying 5 mcg by the client's weight in kg: 5 mcg/kg/min × 82.73 kg = 413.65 mcg/min. Find the concentration of the solution in mcg/ml by dividing 250 ml by 50,000 mcg (50 mg): 250 ml/50,000 mcg = 200 mcg/ml. As the client needs 413.65 mcg/min and the solution is 200 mcg/ml, the client should receive 2.07 ml per minute. Finally, using the drip factor of 60 gtt/ml, multiply the ml per minute by the drip factor: 60 gtt/ml × 2.07 ml/min = 124.28 gtt/min, which rounds to 124 gtt/min. Therefore, the client should receive 124 drops per minute. Choice D is the correct answer. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not reflect the accurate calculation based on the client's weight, dosage, concentration of the solution, and drip factor.

2. A client is admitted with a fever of unknown origin. To assess fever patterns, which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Document the client’s temperature fluctuations
• B. Assess for flushed, warm skin consistently
• C. Measure temperature at regular intervals
• D. Use different sites for temperature measurement

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To assess fever patterns accurately, the nurse should measure the client’s temperature at regular intervals. This approach helps in identifying the pattern of fever spikes and fluctuations, which can provide valuable information for diagnostic and treatment purposes. Assessing for flushed, warm skin or documenting circadian rhythms may not directly reveal the fever pattern, while varying temperature measurement sites could lead to inconsistent readings. Therefore, measuring temperature at regular intervals is the most appropriate intervention to identify fever patterns in this scenario.

3. The client has a chest tube. What is the most important action for the nurse to take?

• A. Ensure the chest tube remains unclamped at all times.
• B. Empty the chest tube every 2 hours.
• C. Keep the drainage system below the level of the chest.
• D. Assess for subcutaneous emphysema.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Keeping the drainage system below the level of the chest (C) is crucial to ensure proper drainage and prevent backflow of air or fluid into the chest cavity. This position helps maintain the integrity of the closed drainage system. Ensuring the chest tube remains unclamped at all times (A) allows for continuous drainage. Emptying the chest tube (B) should be done as needed, not routinely every 2 hours. Assessing for subcutaneous emphysema (D) is important but not the most critical action in this scenario.

4. A client with rheumatoid arthritis is experiencing chronic pain in both hands and wrists. Which information about the client is most important for the nurse to obtain when planning care?

• A. Amount of support provided by family members
• B. Measurement of pain using a scale of 0 to 10
• C. The ability to perform ADLs
• D. Nonverbal behaviors exhibited when pain occurs

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Assessing the client's ability to perform activities of daily living (ADLs) is crucial in planning care for someone with chronic pain. Understanding the client's functional status helps the nurse tailor interventions to promote independence and enhance quality of life. It provides valuable insight into the impact of pain on daily activities and guides the development of a comprehensive care plan to address the client's specific needs. While family support, pain measurement, and nonverbal behaviors are important aspects to consider in caring for a client with chronic pain, the ability to perform ADLs directly reflects the client's independence and quality of life, making it the most crucial information to obtain.

5. A client being discharged with a prescription for the bronchodilator theophylline is instructed to take three doses of the medication each day. Since timed-release capsules are not available, which dosing schedule should the nurse advise the client to follow?

• A. 9 a.m., 1 p.m., and 5 p.m.
• B. 8 a.m., 4 p.m., and midnight.
• C. Before breakfast, before lunch, and before dinner.
• D. With breakfast, with lunch, and with dinner.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Theophylline should be administered on a regular around-the-clock schedule to provide the best bronchodilating effect and reduce the potential for adverse effects. The correct dosing schedule of 8 a.m., 4 p.m., and midnight ensures that the client receives consistent dosing throughout the day. Other options do not provide the necessary around-the-clock coverage. It's important to note that food may affect the absorption of the medication, which is why the dosing schedule should not be tied to meal times.

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