Nursing Elites

1. The client has received a new diagnosis of heart failure, and the nurse is providing dietary management education. Which instruction should the nurse include?

• A. Increase intake of foods high in potassium.
• B. Avoid foods high in sodium.
• C. Limit fluid intake to 1.5 liters per day.
• D. Increase intake of foods high in vitamin K.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Avoiding foods high in sodium (choice B) is essential for clients with heart failure to prevent fluid retention and decrease the strain on the heart. High sodium intake can lead to fluid buildup, exacerbating heart failure symptoms. Increasing potassium intake (choice A) can be harmful in heart failure if not monitored closely as it can affect heart rhythm. Limiting fluid intake (choice C) may be necessary in some cases, but the specific amount should be individualized based on the client's condition. Increasing vitamin K intake (choice D) is not a primary concern in heart failure management and is more relevant for clients on anticoagulants to manage blood clotting.

2. The healthcare provider is providing wound care to a client with a stage 3 pressure ulcer that has a large amount of eschar. The wound care prescription states 'clean the wound and then apply collagenase.' Collagenase is a debriding agent. The prescription does not specify a cleaning method. Which technique should the healthcare provider use to cleanse the pressure ulcer?

• A. Lightly coat the wound with povidone-iodine solution
• B. Irrigate the wound with sterile normal saline
• C. Flush the wound with sterile hydrogen peroxide
• D. Remove the eschar with a wet-to-dry dressing

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct technique to cleanse a wound when the prescription does not specify a cleaning method is to irrigate the wound with sterile normal saline. Sterile normal saline is the preferred solution for wound cleaning as it is gentle and does not damage healthy tissues. It helps in removing debris and maintaining a moist environment conducive to healing. Povidone-iodine solution and hydrogen peroxide can be harsh on tissues and delay wound healing. Removing eschar with a wet-to-dry dressing is a mechanical debridement method and should not be done without proper assessment and healthcare provider's order.

3. The census on the unit is 90 percent, and there are no private rooms available. An elderly client with influenza is admitted. Which of the following rooms would it be appropriate to assign this client?

• A. A double room with a client admitted for impetigo.
• B. A double room with another client with the same diagnosis.
• C. A four-bed room with three clients who have had orthopedic surgery.
• D. A double room with an elderly client with a diagnosis of chickenpox.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a private room is not an option, the best choice is to assign the elderly client with influenza to a double room with another client diagnosed with the same condition. This is ideal as droplet precautions would likely already be in place for the other client, reducing the risk of spreading the infection to other clients in the unit. Choice A is not appropriate as impetigo does not require the same precautions as influenza. Choice C is not ideal as orthopedic surgery does not involve respiratory precautions. Choice D is incorrect because chickenpox requires airborne precautions, which could pose a risk to the elderly client with influenza.

4. A male client with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) develops cryptococcal meningitis and tells the nurse he does not want to be resuscitated if his breathing stops. What action should the nurse implement?

• A. Document the client's request in the medical record.
• B. Ask the client if this decision has been discussed with his healthcare provider.
• C. Inform the client that a written, notarized advance directive is required to withhold resuscitation efforts.
• D. Advise the client to designate a person to make healthcare decisions when the client is unable to do so.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client expresses the desire to not be resuscitated, it is essential to inquire if this decision has been discussed with their healthcare provider. This is important to ensure that the client's wishes are appropriately documented and legally binding through the healthcare provider's guidance. It is crucial that healthcare decisions, especially those involving life-saving measures, are well-communicated and documented to respect the client's autonomy and ensure their wishes are honored. Option A is not the best action as it does not address the need to verify discussion with the healthcare provider. Option C is incorrect as it overemphasizes the need for a notarized advance directive, which may not be immediately feasible or necessary in this urgent situation. Option D is not the most appropriate action at this time since the immediate focus should be on clarifying if the decision has been communicated with the healthcare provider.

5. A client with a diagnosis of asthma is receiving albuterol (Proventil) via a metered-dose inhaler (MDI). Which assessment finding indicates that the medication is effective?

• A. Increased oxygen saturation.
• B. Decreased respiratory rate.
• C. Absence of audible wheezing.
• D. Improved exercise tolerance.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Increased oxygen saturation (A) is the most direct indicator of the effectiveness of albuterol (Proventil) in improving breathing. Oxygen saturation reflects the amount of oxygen in the blood, showing that the albuterol is helping with air exchange in the lungs. While decreased respiratory rate (B), absence of audible wheezing (C), and improved exercise tolerance (D) are positive outcomes, they are secondary to oxygen saturation. Oxygen saturation directly reflects the improvement in the client's respiratory status and the effectiveness of the medication.

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