Nursing Elites

1. In assessing a client with type 1 diabetes mellitus, the nurse notes that the client's respirations have changed from 16 breaths/min with a normal depth to 32 breaths/min and deep, and the client becomes lethargic. Which assessment data should the nurse obtain next?

• A. Pulse oximetry
• B. Blood glucose
• C. Arterial blood gases
• D. Serum electrolytes

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Deep, rapid respirations (Kussmaul respirations) and lethargy are signs of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), which occurs in uncontrolled type 1 diabetes. Checking the blood glucose is the priority to confirm hyperglycemia and guide immediate treatment. Pulse oximetry is not the priority in this situation as the issue is related to altered glucose levels, not oxygenation. Arterial blood gases and serum electrolytes may be important later in the management of DKA but are not the initial priority compared to confirming and addressing the hyperglycemia.

2. A client with pneumonia is receiving antibiotics and oxygen therapy. What assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Productive cough with yellow sputum.
• B. Oxygen saturation of 88%.
• C. Respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute.
• D. Heart rate of 90 beats per minute.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An oxygen saturation of 88% indicates hypoxemia, which is a critical condition requiring immediate intervention to improve oxygenation. Hypoxemia can lead to tissue hypoxia and further complications. A productive cough with yellow sputum is common in pneumonia but may not require immediate intervention unless it worsens or is associated with other concerning symptoms. A respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute is within the normal range, indicating adequate ventilation. A heart rate of 90 beats per minute is also within a normal range and may not require immediate intervention unless it is accompanied by other abnormal findings.

3. A client with a history of adrenal insufficiency is admitted with acute adrenal crisis. The client complains of nausea and joint pain, vital signs show a temperature of 102°F, heart rate of 138, and blood pressure of 80/60. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Obtain an analgesic prescription.
• B. Infuse an intravenous fluid bolus.
• C. Administer PRN oral antipyretic.
• D. Cover the client with a cooling blanket.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In acute adrenal crisis, the priority intervention is to infuse an intravenous fluid bolus to address the hypotension (blood pressure of 80/60) and help stabilize the client's condition. Adequate fluid volume is crucial in managing adrenal insufficiency crisis. Options A, C, and D do not directly address the hypotension and fluid volume depletion that are critical in this situation. Analgesics, antipyretics, and cooling blankets may be considered later, but the immediate focus should be on fluid resuscitation.

4. While assessing an older client's fall risk, the client reports living at home alone and never falling. Which action should the nurse take?

• A. Suggest moving to an assisted living facility
• B. Continue to obtain client data needed to complete the fall risk survey
• C. Reduce the frequency of fall risk assessments for this client
• D. Confirm that the client is safe living alone

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to continue obtaining client data to complete the fall risk survey. Even though the client reports never falling, it is essential to assess all fall risk factors comprehensively. Fall risk surveys provide valuable information on mobility, vision, medications, and other factors that can impact safety. Option A is incorrect because suggesting moving to an assisted living facility is premature without completing the fall risk assessment. Option C is incorrect as reducing the frequency of fall risk assessments could overlook potential risk factors. Option D is incorrect as the client's statement alone is not enough to confirm their safety living alone; a thorough assessment is necessary.

5. The nurse is caring for a client who is post-op after a hip replacement. Which of the following nursing actions is most appropriate to prevent dislocation of the hip?

• A. Place an abduction pillow between the client's legs.
• B. Use an abduction pillow between the client's legs.
• C. Encourage the client to cross their legs while sitting.
• D. Encourage the client to sit upright for long periods.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Using an abduction pillow between the client's legs is the most appropriate nursing action to prevent dislocation after hip replacement surgery. An abduction pillow helps maintain proper alignment and prevents the hip from dislocating. Placing the client in a high Fowler's position (Choice A) or encouraging them to sit upright for long periods (Choice D) may not provide the necessary support and stability needed to prevent hip dislocation. Encouraging the client to cross their legs while sitting (Choice C) can increase the risk of hip dislocation and should be avoided.

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