Nursing Elites

1. In assessing a client with type 1 diabetes mellitus, the nurse notes that the client's respirations have changed from 16 breaths/min with a normal depth to 32 breaths/min and deep, and the client becomes lethargic. Which assessment data should the nurse obtain next?

• A. Pulse oximetry
• B. Blood glucose
• C. Arterial blood gases
• D. Serum electrolytes

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Deep, rapid respirations (Kussmaul respirations) and lethargy are signs of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), which occurs in uncontrolled type 1 diabetes. Checking the blood glucose is the priority to confirm hyperglycemia and guide immediate treatment. Pulse oximetry is not the priority in this situation as the issue is related to altered glucose levels, not oxygenation. Arterial blood gases and serum electrolytes may be important later in the management of DKA but are not the initial priority compared to confirming and addressing the hyperglycemia.

2. While assessing several clients in a long-term health care facility, which client is at the highest risk for developing decubitus ulcers?

• A. A 79-year-old malnourished client on bed rest
• B. An obese client who uses a wheelchair
• C. A client who had 3 episodes of incontinent diarrhea
• D. An 80-year-old ambulatory diabetic client

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: A 79-year-old malnourished client on bed rest. This client is at the highest risk for developing decubitus ulcers due to being malnourished and on bed rest, leading to decreased mobility and poor nutrition. This combination puts the client at significant risk for skin breakdown and pressure ulcers. Choice B is incorrect because although obesity is a risk factor for developing pressure ulcers, immobility and poor nutrition are higher risk factors. Choice C is incorrect as incontinence can contribute to skin breakdown but is not as high a risk factor as immobility and poor nutrition. Choice D is incorrect as an ambulatory client, even if diabetic, has better mobility than a bedridden client and is at lower risk for developing decubitus ulcers.

3. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is prescribed home oxygen therapy. What teaching should the nurse provide?

• A. Ensure that the client uses oxygen continuously at night.
• B. Instruct the client to avoid smoking and exposure to smoke.
• C. Teach the client how to clean and replace the oxygen tubing.
• D. Instruct the client to increase their fluid intake.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct teaching for a client with COPD prescribed home oxygen therapy is to educate them on how to clean and replace the oxygen tubing. This is crucial to prevent infections and ensure the effectiveness of the oxygen delivery system. Option A is not necessary as oxygen therapy is usually prescribed as needed, not continuously at night. While smoking cessation and avoiding smoke exposure are important in COPD management, it is not directly related to home oxygen therapy. Increasing fluid intake is beneficial for some conditions but is not specifically related to home oxygen therapy for COPD.

4. During an assessment of a client with congestive heart failure, the nurse is most likely to hear which of the following upon auscultation of the heart?

• A. S3 ventricular gallop
• B. Apical click
• C. Systolic murmur
• D. Split S2

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct Answer: An S3 ventricular gallop is an abnormal heart sound commonly heard in clients with congestive heart failure. This sound is indicative of fluid overload or volume expansion in the ventricles, which is often present in heart failure. <br> Incorrect Answers: <br> B: An apical click is not typically associated with congestive heart failure. <br> C: A systolic murmur may be heard in various cardiac conditions but is not specific to congestive heart failure. <br> D: A split S2 refers to a normal heart sound caused by the closure of the aortic and pulmonic valves at slightly different times during inspiration, not directly related to congestive heart failure.

5. A client with tuberculosis is prescribed rifampin. What side effect should the nurse inform the client about?

• A. Report orange-colored urine as a sign of kidney dysfunction.
• B. Expect red-orange discoloration of urine as a harmless side effect.
• C. Monitor for signs of liver toxicity.
• D. Call the healthcare provider if vision changes occur.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Rifampin can cause red-orange discoloration of bodily fluids, including urine, saliva, and tears. This is a harmless side effect, but clients should be informed beforehand to prevent alarm. Choice A is incorrect as orange-colored urine is not a sign of kidney dysfunction related to rifampin. Choice C is incorrect because rifampin is more commonly associated with liver toxicity rather than kidney dysfunction. Choice D is incorrect as vision changes are not a typical side effect of rifampin.

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