Nursing Elites

1. In assessing a client with type 1 diabetes mellitus, the nurse notes that the client's respirations have changed from 16 breaths/min with a normal depth to 32 breaths/min and deep, and the client becomes lethargic. Which assessment data should the nurse obtain next?

• A. Pulse oximetry
• B. Blood glucose
• C. Arterial blood gases
• D. Serum electrolytes

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Deep, rapid respirations (Kussmaul respirations) and lethargy are signs of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), which occurs in uncontrolled type 1 diabetes. Checking the blood glucose is the priority to confirm hyperglycemia and guide immediate treatment. Pulse oximetry is not the priority in this situation as the issue is related to altered glucose levels, not oxygenation. Arterial blood gases and serum electrolytes may be important later in the management of DKA but are not the initial priority compared to confirming and addressing the hyperglycemia.

2. A client with a history of hypertension and hyperlipidemia is admitted with chest pain. What is the nurse's priority action?

• A. Administer prescribed nitroglycerin.
• B. Obtain a 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG).
• C. Check the client's vital signs.
• D. Place the client on continuous telemetry.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to obtain a 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG). This action is crucial in assessing the heart's electrical activity and helps in the evaluation of chest pain. Administering nitroglycerin (Choice A) may be necessary but should come after obtaining the ECG to confirm the diagnosis. Checking vital signs (Choice C) is important but does not provide direct information about the heart's electrical status. Placing the client on continuous telemetry (Choice D) may be appropriate later but does not provide immediate information on the heart's electrical activity as an ECG does.

3. A client who had a vasectomy is in the post-recovery unit at an outpatient clinic. Which of these points is most important to be reinforced by the nurse?

• A. Until the healthcare provider has determined that your ejaculate doesn't contain sperm, continue to use another form of contraception.
• B. This procedure doesn't impede the production of male hormones or the production of sperm in the testicles. The sperm can no longer enter your semen, and no sperm are in your ejaculate.
• C. After your vasectomy, strenuous activity needs to be avoided for at least 48 hours. If your work doesn't involve hard physical labor, you can return to your job as soon as you feel up to it. The stitches generally dissolve in seven to ten days.
• D. The healthcare provider at this clinic recommends rest, ice, an athletic supporter, or over-the-counter pain medication to relieve any discomfort.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most important point to reinforce after a vasectomy is to continue using contraception until the healthcare provider confirms the absence of sperm in the ejaculate. Choice A is correct because it emphasizes the necessity of another form of contraception until sperm absence is confirmed. Choice B is incorrect because it focuses on how a vasectomy works anatomically rather than the need for ongoing contraception. Choice C is incorrect as it discusses post-vasectomy care but does not address the need for continued contraception. Choice D is also incorrect as it refers to general post-procedure recommendations but does not highlight the crucial aspect of using contraception until sperm absence is confirmed.

4. A client with multiple sclerosis is experiencing fatigue. What is the nurse's priority intervention?

• A. Encourage the client to increase physical activity.
• B. Encourage the client to take rest breaks during activities.
• C. Administer a stimulant medication to reduce fatigue.
• D. Advise the client to use energy conservation techniques.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Advise the client to use energy conservation techniques. Energy conservation techniques are crucial in managing fatigue in multiple sclerosis. These techniques involve prioritizing activities, pacing oneself, and taking rest breaks to prevent overexertion, which can exacerbate fatigue. Encouraging the client to increase physical activity (choice A) may worsen fatigue if not done with proper energy conservation. Taking rest breaks during activities (choice B) is important but falls secondary to teaching energy conservation techniques. Administering a stimulant medication to reduce fatigue (choice C) should not be the priority as non-pharmacological interventions like energy conservation should be attempted first.

5. A client is receiving treatment for glaucoma. Which class of medications is commonly used to decrease intraocular pressure?

• A. Anticholinergics
• B. Beta blockers
• C. Alpha blockers
• D. Diuretics

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Diuretics are commonly used to decrease intraocular pressure in clients with glaucoma. They work by reducing the production of aqueous humor in the eye or by increasing its outflow. Anticholinergics (Choice A) are not typically used in the treatment of glaucoma and can even increase intraocular pressure. Beta blockers (Choice B) are also commonly used in glaucoma treatment as they reduce aqueous humor production. Alpha blockers (Choice C) are not the first-line treatment for glaucoma and are not as commonly used as diuretics or beta blockers.

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