if a client is suffering from thyroid storm the pn can expect to find on assessment
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NCLEX-PN

NCLEX PN Exam Cram

1. If a client is suffering from thyroid storm, the PN can expect to find on assessment:

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In thyroid storm, there is an excess of thyroxine, leading to symptoms such as tachycardia (rapid heart rate) and hyperthermia (increased body temperature). Atrial fibrillation and palpitations are also commonly observed. Choices B and C are more indicative of hypothyroidism, where the thyroid is underactive, leading to bradycardia (slow heart rate), hypothermia (decreased body temperature), and the development of a large goiter. Choice D, a calm, quiet client, is unlikely in a thyroid storm where the individual would typically present with symptoms of agitation and restlessness due to the hypermetabolic state.

2. Which of the following is the drug of choice to decrease uric acid levels?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Allopurinol is the correct drug to decrease uric acid levels as it is used to treat gout by reducing uric acid formation. Prednisone is a corticosteroid that decreases inflammation, not uric acid levels. Indomethacin is an analgesic, anti-inflammatory, and antipyretic agent, not specifically used to reduce uric acid levels. Hydrochlorothiazide is a thiazide diuretic primarily used for treating hypertension and edema, not for reducing uric acid levels.

3. How can a nurse recognize that a chronic renal failure client's AV shunt is patent?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct assessment to determine the patency of an AV shunt in a chronic renal failure client is the presence of a thrill. A thrill is a vibration or buzzing sensation felt over the shunt site, indicating good blood flow through the shunt. While the presence of a bruit is also important for assessing an AV shunt, a thrill is a more specific indicator of patency. Blood return from the shunt is related to cannulation and not necessarily an indicator of patency. Urine output greater than 30 ml/hr is not directly related to the assessment of an AV shunt's patency.

4. Which of the following needs immediate medical attention and emergency intervention? The client who:

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Choice C is indicative of a tension pneumothorax, which is considered a medical emergency. The respiratory system is severely compromised, and venous return to the heart is affected. The mediastinal shift is to the unaffected side, indicating a critical situation that requires immediate intervention to prevent further deterioration. This condition can rapidly progress to a life-threatening state, necessitating prompt medical attention. Choices A, B, and D do not present with life-threatening conditions requiring emergency intervention. Choice A mentions symptoms of pleurisy, which may be painful but not immediately life-threatening. Choice B describes symptoms of bronchitis, which may require medical attention but not of an emergent nature. Choice D reflects a common complaint in asthma but does not suggest an immediate life-threatening situation unless severe respiratory distress is present.

5. A client goes to the Emergency Department with acute respiratory distress and the following arterial blood gases (ABGs): pH 7.35, PCO2 40 mmHg, PO2 63 mmHg, HCO3 23, and oxygenation saturation (SaO2) 93%. Which of the following represents the best analysis of the etiology of these ABGs?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A combined low PO2 and low SaO2 indicate hypoxia. The pH, PCO2, and HCO3 are normal. ABGs are not necessarily altered in TB or pleural effusion. In pneumonia, the PO2 and PCO2 might be low due to hypoxia stimulating hyperventilation, but the given ABG values specifically point to hypoxia as the primary issue.

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