Nursing Elites

1. If a client is suffering from thyroid storm, the PN can expect to find on assessment:

• A. tachycardia and hyperthermia.
• B. bradycardia and hypothermia.
• C. a large goiter.
• D. a calm, quiet client

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In thyroid storm, there is an excess of thyroxine, leading to symptoms such as tachycardia (rapid heart rate) and hyperthermia (increased body temperature). Atrial fibrillation and palpitations are also commonly observed. Choices B and C are more indicative of hypothyroidism, where the thyroid is underactive, leading to bradycardia (slow heart rate), hypothermia (decreased body temperature), and the development of a large goiter. Choice D, a calm, quiet client, is unlikely in a thyroid storm where the individual would typically present with symptoms of agitation and restlessness due to the hypermetabolic state.

2. After discontinuing a peripherally inserted central line (PICC), what information is most important for the nurse to record?

• A. How the client tolerated the procedure.
• B. The length and intactness of the central line catheter.
• C. The amount of fluid left in the IV solution container.
• D. That a dressing was applied to the insertion site.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most important information for the nurse to record after discontinuing a peripherally inserted central line (PICC) is the length and intactness of the central line catheter. This is crucial for assessing any potential complications or safety issues post-removal. Choices A, C, and D are not as critical as ensuring the condition of the central line catheter. While noting the client's tolerance of the procedure is relevant for their care assessment, evaluating the central line's integrity takes precedence in this scenario.

3. When discussing the child's wishes for future care, it is important for the nurse to first identify what the child knows about the disease and his prognosis. Factors such as the perceived severity of the illness will be significant in planning for end-of-life care. If the child does not understand the disease process or prognosis, the plan of care would not be effective or realistic. In addition, asking a child about desired interventions in the event of cardiac or respiratory arrest would not be an appropriate initial area of questioning. If the child does not understand the disease process, these questions may seem frightening or threatening. While exploring the child's belief about death would be important, it would not be the initial area of discussion and should be guided by the child rather than the nurse.

• A. What the child knows about the disease and his prognosis.
• B. How the child would like to handle the plan of care.
• C. What interventions the child would like in the event of cardiac or respiratory arrest.
• D. What the child believes about death.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When discussing the child's wishes for future care, it is essential to first determine what the child understands about the disease and his prognosis. This information is crucial for planning appropriate end-of-life care. If the child lacks comprehension of the illness and its prognosis, any care plan discussed would be ineffective and unrealistic. Inquiring about desired interventions during cardiac or respiratory arrest is not the initial step, as it may cause distress if the child lacks understanding. While exploring the child's beliefs about death is significant, it should not be the primary focus initially and should be approached based on the child's readiness, not the nurse's agenda. Therefore, the correct first step is to assess what the child knows about the disease and his prognosis.

4. The nurse is checking laboratory values on a patient who has crackling rales in the lower lobes, 2+ pitting edema, and dyspnea with minimal exertion. Which of the following laboratory values does the nurse expect to be abnormal?

• A. Potassium.
• B. B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP).
• C. C-reactive protein (CRP).
• D. Platelets.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The client's symptoms suggest heart failure. BNP is a neurohormone released from the ventricles due to increased pressure and stretch, as seen in heart failure. A BNP level greater than 51 pg/mL is often associated with mild heart failure, with higher levels indicating more severe heart failure. Potassium levels are not typically affected by heart failure. CRP is an inflammation indicator used to predict coronary artery disease risk, not directly related to heart failure in this case. The client's symptoms do not suggest bleeding or clotting abnormalities associated with platelet count issues, making platelets an unlikely abnormal value.

5. A 28-year-old male has a diagnosis of AIDS. The patient has had a two-year history of AIDS. The most likely cognitive deficits include which of the following?

• A. Disorientation
• B. Sensory changes
• C. Inability to produce sound
• D. Hearing deficits

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In individuals with AIDS, cognitive deficits commonly manifest as confusion and disorientation, making choice A, 'Disorientation,' the correct answer. Sensory changes (choice B) and hearing deficits (choice D) are more related to sensory processing rather than cognitive impairment. 'Inability to produce sound' (choice C) is more indicative of a speech or language deficit rather than a cognitive impairment typically seen in AIDS patients.

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