Nursing Elites

1. If a client has chronic renal failure, which of the following sexual complications is the client at risk of developing?

• A. retrograde ejaculation
• B. decreased plasma testosterone
• C. hypertrophy of testicles
• D. state of euphoria

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In chronic renal failure, untreated, the client is at risk of developing decreased plasma testosterone. This condition leads to atrophy of the testicles and decreased spermatogenesis. Retrograde ejaculation is not a complication of chronic renal failure but can occur after transurethral resection of the prostate. The testicles atrophy in chronic renal failure; they do not hypertrophy. Additionally, chronic renal failure often leads to a state of depression, not euphoria.

2. The patient is inquiring about the use of a PCA pump for pain management. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for additional education?

• A. "I will continue to report my pain score during assessments."?
• B. "I understand that there is a maximum dose per hour that I can receive regardless of how many times I press the button."?
• C. "I believe this new PCA pump will finally alleviate my back pain."?
• D. "I have more control over when and how much medication I receive."?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is, "I believe this new PCA pump will finally alleviate my back pain."? This statement indicates a need for additional education as it reflects an unrealistic expectation regarding pain management. It is essential for the patient to understand that while a PCA pump can provide effective pain relief, it may not completely eliminate pain. Option A is correct as it demonstrates the patient's understanding of the importance of reporting pain scores for proper pain management. Option B is correct as it shows the patient's awareness of the maximum dose limits to prevent overdose. Option D is correct as it highlights the patient's understanding of the control they have over their medication administration.

3. A nurse reviewing a client's record notes that the result of the client's latest Snellen chart vision test was 20/80. The nurse interprets the client's results in which way?

• A. The client is legally blind.
• B. The client has normal vision.
• C. The client can read at a distance of 20 feet what a client with normal vision can read at 80 feet.
• D. The client can read at a distance of 80 feet what a client with normal vision can read at 20 feet.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When interpreting visual acuity testing results using the Snellen chart, the recorded numeric fraction represents the distance the client is standing from the chart and the distance a normal eye could read that particular line. A reading of 20/80 means that the client can read at 20 feet what a client with normal vision can read at 80 feet. This indicates visual impairment but does not meet the criteria for legal blindness, which is defined as best-corrected vision in the better eye of 20/200 or worse. Normal visual acuity is 20/20. Therefore, the correct interpretation is that the client can read at a distance of 80 feet what a client with normal vision can read at 20 feet. Choice A is incorrect because 20/80 does not meet the criteria for legal blindness. Choice B is incorrect as the client's vision is impaired. Choice C is incorrect because it reverses the interpretation of the fraction.

4. The LPN is about to give 100 mg Lopressor (metoprolol) to a client. Before administering the drug, they take the patient's vitals, which are as follows: Pulse: 58 Blood Pressure: 90/62 Respirations: 18/minute What action should the LPN take?

• A. Give the client half the prescribed dose and report the findings to the RN on duty.
• B. Give the client double the dose and report the findings to the RN on duty.
• C. Administer the drug and report the findings to the RN on duty.
• D. Hold the drug and report the findings to the RN on duty.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Lopressor is given to treat hypertension, and a pulse of 58 and a blood pressure of 90/62 are considered low. To prevent the client from bottoming out, the drug should be held, and the findings reported to the RN, who should consult with the attending physician. LPNs should never adjust client dosing, as that is outside of their scope of practice. It is crucial to follow facility guidelines, which often recommend holding blood pressure medication at 60 bpm and a systolic pressure of 90 or less. By holding the drug and notifying the RN, the LPN ensures the client's safety and allows for appropriate assessment and decision-making by the healthcare team. Giving half the dose or double the dose without proper authorization can lead to serious complications and is considered unsafe practice.

5. The LPN participates in a home visit for a client with Type 2 Diabetes who has been taking Metformin for 3 years. The client states that for the past 3 months, they have been trying a vegan diet and experiencing fatigue, confusion, and mood changes. What is a likely cause of the new symptoms?

• A. vitamin B12 deficiency
• B. chronic hypoglycemia
• C. vitamin D deficiency
• D. increased tolerance to Metformin

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is vitamin B12 deficiency. Long-term use of Metformin can lead to vitamin B12 deficiency, and a vegan diet is low in vitamin B12. Symptoms of vitamin B12 deficiency include anemia, fatigue, confusion, and mood changes. Chronic hypoglycemia is unlikely in a client with Type 2 Diabetes who has been taking Metformin as it typically causes hyperglycemia. Vitamin D deficiency usually presents with symptoms related to bones and muscles, not confusion and mood changes. Increased tolerance to Metformin does not explain the client's new symptoms, which are more indicative of a nutritional deficiency like vitamin B12.

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