NCLEX-PN
NCLEX PN Practice Questions Quizlet
1. If a client has chronic renal failure, which of the following sexual complications is the client at risk of developing?
- A. retrograde ejaculation
- B. decreased plasma testosterone
- C. hypertrophy of testicles
- D. state of euphoria
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In chronic renal failure, untreated, the client is at risk of developing decreased plasma testosterone. This condition leads to atrophy of the testicles and decreased spermatogenesis. Retrograde ejaculation is not a complication of chronic renal failure but can occur after transurethral resection of the prostate. The testicles atrophy in chronic renal failure; they do not hypertrophy. Additionally, chronic renal failure often leads to a state of depression, not euphoria.
2. A client, age 28, is 8 1/2 months pregnant. She is most likely to display which normal skin-color variation?
- A. vitiligo
- B. erythema
- C. cyanosis
- D. chloasma
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Chloasma, also known as the mask of pregnancy, is described as tan-to-brown patches on the face. This hyperpigmentation results from hormonal changes during pregnancy. Vitiligo is characterized by depigmented patches, erythema is redness of the skin due to increased blood flow, and cyanosis is a bluish discoloration due to poor circulation or lack of oxygen, none of which are typical skin-color variations during pregnancy. Therefore, in a pregnant client, the most likely normal skin-color variation to be displayed is chloasma.
3. While performing a physical assessment on a 6-month-old infant, the nurse observes head lag. Which of the following nursing actions should the nurse perform first?
- A. Ask the parents to allow the infant to lie on his stomach to promote muscle development.
- B. Notify the physician because a developmental or neurological evaluation is indicated.
- C. Document the findings as abnormal in the nurse's notes.
- D. Explain to the parents that their child is likely to have developmental delays.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Head lag should be completely resolved by 4 months of age. Continuing head lag at 6 months of age indicates the need for further developmental or neurological evaluation. Laying the infant on his stomach promotes muscle development of the neck and shoulder muscles, but because of the age of this child, a referral should be the first action. The findings are abnormal for a 6-month-old infant. Significant head lag can be seen in infants with Down syndrome and hypoxia, as well as neurological and other metabolic disorders. While some of these disorders might include developmental delays, stating this to the parents without a proper evaluation can cause unnecessary distress. The priority is to identify the cause of the head lag through a medical evaluation before discussing potential outcomes with the parents.
4. A 45-year-old client with type I diabetes is in need of support services upon discharge from a skilled rehabilitation unit. Which of the following services is an example of a skilled support service?
- A. shopping for groceries
- B. house cleaning
- C. transportation to physician's visits
- D. medication instruction
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is medication instruction. This is a skilled service that requires specialized knowledge and training to provide proper guidance on medication management for a client with type I diabetes. Grocery shopping, house cleaning, and transportation services are considered unskilled services as they are typically offered by volunteer or fee-for-service agencies and do not require specialized medical expertise. Medication instruction, on the other hand, involves educating the client on how to properly take medications, understand potential side effects, and manage their medication regimen effectively, which necessitates a high level of expertise and training.
5. In conducting a health screening for 12-month-old children, the nurse expects them to have been immunized against which of the following diseases?
- A. measles, polio, pertussis, hepatitis B
- B. diphtheria, pertussis, polio, tetanus
- C. rubella, polio, pertussis, hepatitis A
- D. measles, mumps, rubella, polio
Correct answer: B
Rationale: By 12 months of age, children should have received vaccines for diphtheria, pertussis, polio, and tetanus (DTaP and IPV). The correct answer is B as it includes these vaccines that are typically administered in the first year of life. Measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR) vaccination usually begins at 12 months of age but is not expected to be completed by this time. Choices A and C are incorrect as they include diseases that are not part of the routine immunization schedule for a 12-month-old child.
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