Nursing Elites

1. If a client has chronic renal failure, which of the following sexual complications is the client at risk of developing?

• A. retrograde ejaculation
• B. decreased plasma testosterone
• C. hypertrophy of testicles
• D. state of euphoria

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In chronic renal failure, untreated, the client is at risk of developing decreased plasma testosterone. This condition leads to atrophy of the testicles and decreased spermatogenesis. Retrograde ejaculation is not a complication of chronic renal failure but can occur after transurethral resection of the prostate. The testicles atrophy in chronic renal failure; they do not hypertrophy. Additionally, chronic renal failure often leads to a state of depression, not euphoria.

2. Intramuscular (IM) phytonadione (vitamin K) 0.5 mg is prescribed for a newborn. After the medication is prepared, in which anatomic site does the nurse administer it?

• A. Rectus femoris muscle
• B. Deltoid muscle
• C. Gluteal muscle
• D. Vastus lateralis muscle

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Vitamin K is administered to newborn infants to help prevent hemorrhagic disease. The best site for intramuscular injection in infants is the vastus lateralis muscle. This site is preferred due to its location away from the sciatic nerve, femoral artery, and vein, reducing the risk of complications. The rectus femoris muscle may be used if necessary; however, it is less favorable than the vastus lateralis due to its proximity to vital structures, making injections there more hazardous. The deltoid muscle is not typically used for IM injections in newborns. The gluteal muscles should be avoided until the child has been walking for at least a year, as they are poorly developed and close to the sciatic nerve.

3. When administering a nasal spray medication, what should the client do before the medication is administered?

• A. The client should blow their nose gently before the medication is administered.
• B. The medication should be sprayed into the nostril.
• C. The medication should be administered as the client inhales.
• D. The client should sit upright when the medication is administered.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is that the client should blow their nose gently before the medication is administered. This step helps clear the nasal passages, ensuring that the medication can reach its intended target. Choice B is incorrect as the nasal spray should be directed into the nostril, not just in front of the nose. Administering the medication as the client inhales (Choice C) is crucial to ensure proper delivery, as it helps the medication reach the desired areas. Choice D is incorrect because the client should be sitting upright, not lying flat, when administering nasal spray medication to allow for better absorption and prevent the medication from flowing out.

4. A client is scheduled to undergo a Papanicolaou (Pap) test in 1 week. Which statement does the nurse make to the client?

• A. 'If you are menstruating, use pads instead of a tampon.'
• B. 'Avoid intercourse for 24 hours before the scheduled examination.'
• C. 'Get a douching kit from the pharmacy and douche 2 hours before the examination.'
• D. 'If you are having a vaginal discharge, obtain a sample of the discharge for inspection.'

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to 'Avoid intercourse for 24 hours before the scheduled examination.' The Pap test is used to screen for cervical cancer. It is not performed during menstruation or if a heavy infectious discharge is present. Before the test, the client should not douche, have intercourse, or insert anything into the vagina within 24 hours. Instructing the client to use pads instead of a tampon when menstruating can interfere with the test results due to the presence of blood. Douching before the exam is discouraged as it can alter the cervical cells' appearance, affecting the test's accuracy. Obtaining a sample of vaginal discharge for inspection is not a standard pre-Pap test instruction and is unnecessary for the test.

5. When assessing a client with deep pitting edema, with the indentation remaining for a short time and visible leg swelling, how should a nurse document this finding?

• A. 1+ edema
• B. 2+ edema
• C. 3+ edema
• D. 4+ edema

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 3+ edema. When assessing for edema, the nurse presses thumbs against the ankle malleolus or the tibia. If the skin retains an indentation, it indicates pitting edema. The grading scale for pitting edema includes: 1+ for mild pitting with slight indentation and no perceptible leg swelling, 2+ for moderate pitting where the indentation subsides rapidly, 3+ for deep pitting with an indentation remaining briefly and visible leg swelling, and 4+ for very deep pitting with a long-lasting indentation and significant leg swelling. Choices A, B, and D do not accurately represent the severity of the edema described in the scenario.

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