Nursing Elites

1. During the insertion of a nasogastric tube (NGT), the client begins to cough and gag. What action should the healthcare professional take?

• A. Stop advancing the tube and allow the client to rest
• B. Remove the tube and try again after a few minutes
• C. Continue inserting the tube while the client sips water
• D. Withdraw the tube slightly and pause before continuing

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a client begins to cough and gag during the insertion of a nasogastric tube, withdrawing the tube slightly and pausing is the appropriate action. This technique helps prevent further irritation, gives the client a moment to recover, and allows for a smoother continuation of the insertion process. Choice A is incorrect because allowing the client to rest without adjusting the tube position might not address the issue. Choice B is incorrect as removing the tube without addressing the cause of coughing and gagging may lead to repeated discomfort. Choice C is incorrect as continuing to insert the tube while the client is experiencing difficulties can increase discomfort and potential complications.

2. When caring for an immobile client, what nursing diagnosis has the highest priority?

• A. Risk for fluid volume deficit.
• B. Impaired gas exchange.
• C. Risk for impaired skin integrity.
• D. Altered tissue perfusion.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When caring for an immobile client, the nursing diagnosis with the highest priority is impaired gas exchange. This is because impaired gas exchange implies difficulty with breathing, which is essential for sustaining life. Adequate oxygenation is crucial for all bodily functions, and any impairment in gas exchange can lead to serious complications, making it the priority nursing diagnosis to address in an immobile client. Choices A, C, and D are important considerations as well when caring for an immobile client, but they are secondary to impaired gas exchange. Risk for fluid volume deficit may occur due to immobility, but ensuring proper gas exchange takes precedence as it directly impacts the client's immediate survival. Risk for impaired skin integrity is a concern in immobile clients but does not pose an immediate threat to life like impaired gas exchange. Altered tissue perfusion is also critical but is usually a consequence of impaired gas exchange, reinforcing the priority of addressing gas exchange first.

3. A client who has been on bed rest for several days is at risk for developing deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which intervention should the nurse include in the client's plan of care?

• A. Encourage the client to ambulate as tolerated.
• B. Apply antiembolism stockings as prescribed.
• C. Elevate the client's legs on a pillow.
• D. Perform passive range-of-motion exercises daily.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Applying antiembolism stockings as prescribed (B) is an effective intervention to prevent deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in a client on bed rest. While encouraging ambulation (A), elevating the legs (C), and performing passive range-of-motion exercises (D) are also beneficial, compression stockings are particularly effective in reducing the risk of DVT by promoting venous return and reducing stasis in the lower extremities.

4. A client with a diagnosis of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving oxygen via nasal cannula at 4 liters per minute. Which assessment finding indicates a need for immediate action?

• A. The client's respiratory rate is 14 breaths per minute.
• B. The client's oxygen saturation is 92%.
• C. The client reports shortness of breath.
• D. The client's respiratory rate is 24 breaths per minute.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A report of shortness of breath (C) indicates that the client is not tolerating the oxygen therapy well and may need an adjustment. Shortness of breath is a critical symptom in a client with COPD, as it signifies potential respiratory distress. A respiratory rate of 14 (A) is within an acceptable range for a client with COPD and does not require immediate action. An oxygen saturation of 92% (B) is slightly lower but still acceptable in COPD patients. Although a respiratory rate of 24 (D) is higher, it is not as immediately concerning as shortness of breath in this context.

5. A client who is in hospice care complains of increasing amounts of pain. The healthcare provider prescribes an analgesic every four hours as needed. Which action should the nurse implement?

• A. Give analgesics on an around-the-clock schedule for pain management.
• B. Administer analgesic medication only when the pain becomes severe.
• C. Provide medication to keep the client comfortable without inducing sedation.
• D. Allow brief medication-free periods to promote comfort during daily activities.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most effective pain management strategy in hospice care involves administering analgesics on an around-the-clock schedule (A) to maintain pain control. Waiting until pain is severe before administering medication (B) is not ideal as it may lead to inadequate pain relief. While providing comfort is crucial in hospice care, sedation that prevents the client from interacting and experiencing their remaining time should be minimized. Therefore, keeping the client comfortable without excessive sedation (C) is preferred. Allowing for some periods without medication (D) may be appropriate but should not compromise the client's comfort and pain control.

Similar Questions