a client becomes angry while waiting for a supervised break to smoke a cigarette outside and states i want to go outside now and smoke it takes foreve
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI Fundamentals Practice Exam

1. A client becomes angry while waiting for a supervised break to smoke a cigarette outside and states, 'I want to go outside now and smoke. It takes forever to get anything done here!' Which intervention is best for the nurse to implement?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a client becomes angry while waiting for a supervised break, it is essential to address their concerns effectively. Reviewing the schedule of outdoor breaks with the client provides concrete information, helps manage the client's expectations, and may alleviate their frustration. This intervention promotes transparency and empowers the client by clarifying the timing of their desired break, fostering a therapeutic and collaborative nurse-client relationship. Encouraging the client to use a nicotine patch (Choice A) does not address the client's immediate frustration with the break schedule. Reassuring the client about another break (Choice B) may temporarily placate them but does not address the underlying issue. Having the client leave the unit with another staff member (Choice C) may not be feasible or appropriate at that moment and does not address the client's concerns.

2. The daughter of an older woman who became depressed following the death of her husband asks, 'My mother was always well-adjusted until my father died. Will she tend to be sick from now on?' Which response is best for the nurse to provide?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The successful resolution of a developmental crisis in the later years involves acceptance and adaptation, and the daughter should be reassured that recovery is likely.

3. During the assessment, a client receiving a continuous infusion of heparin for deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is found to have a nosebleed. Which finding requires immediate action?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A nosebleed (B) in a client receiving heparin is a sign of heparin toxicity and requires immediate action. It indicates that the client is at risk of excessive bleeding. While a prolonged aPTT of 70 seconds (A) is worth monitoring, active bleeding takes precedence. Elevated blood pressure (C) and lightheadedness (D) are potential side effects of heparin but are not as urgently concerning as active bleeding.

4. The healthcare professional is using the Glasgow Coma Scale to perform a neurologic assessment. A comatose client winces and pulls away from a painful stimulus. What action should the healthcare professional take next?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The client's response to a painful stimulus indicates a purposeful reaction, which should be accurately documented as per the assessment findings. This documentation is essential for ongoing monitoring and communication of the client's condition to the healthcare team.

5. Which assessment data indicates the need for the nurse to include the problem 'Risk for falls' in a client’s plan of care?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The administration of opioid analgesics can impair balance and increase the risk of falls, justifying the inclusion of 'Risk for falls' in the client’s care plan. Choice A, a recent serum hemoglobin level of 16 g/dL, is not directly related to the risk of falls. Choice C, stooped posture with an unsteady gait, may indicate a risk for falls, but the direct influence of opioid analgesics on balance is more immediate. Choice D, expressed feelings of depression, while important, is not a direct indicator of the immediate risk for falls associated with opioid analgesic use.

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