HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Quizlet
1. During a clinic visit, a client with a kidney transplant asks, 'What will happen if chronic rejection develops?' Which response is best for the nurse to provide?
- A. Dialysis would need to be resumed if chronic rejection becomes a reality.
- B. Immunosuppressive therapy would be intensified.
- C. A second transplant would be scheduled immediately.
- D. We would monitor your kidney function closely.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The best response for the nurse to provide is that dialysis would need to be resumed if chronic rejection becomes a reality. Chronic rejection of a transplanted kidney can lead to kidney failure, necessitating the need for dialysis until another transplant is possible. Choice B is incorrect because although immunosuppressive therapy may be adjusted, the immediate concern is the potential need for dialysis. Choice C is incorrect because scheduling a second transplant immediately is not typically the first step following chronic rejection. Choice D is also incorrect as close monitoring of kidney function is essential but does not address the immediate need for dialysis if chronic rejection occurs.
2. The nurse is caring for a client with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which intervention is most important?
- A. Administer insulin as prescribed.
- B. Monitor the client's urine output.
- C. Assess the client's level of consciousness.
- D. Obtain an arterial blood gas (ABG) sample.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering insulin is the most crucial intervention in managing diabetic ketoacidosis. Insulin helps reduce blood glucose levels and correct metabolic acidosis, which are the primary issues in DKA. Monitoring urine output (Choice B) is important but not as critical as administering insulin. Assessing the client's level of consciousness (Choice C) is essential but does not directly address the underlying cause of DKA. Obtaining an arterial blood gas sample (Choice D) can provide valuable information but is not as urgent as administering insulin to address the immediate metabolic imbalance.
3. A client with type 1 diabetes is admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which laboratory value requires immediate intervention?
- A. Serum glucose of 300 mg/dl
- B. Serum potassium of 5.5 mEq/L
- C. Serum bicarbonate of 18 mEq/L
- D. Serum sodium of 135 mEq/L
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A serum bicarbonate level of 18 mEq/L requires immediate intervention in a client with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). A low serum bicarbonate level indicates metabolic acidosis, which can be life-threatening. This condition needs urgent correction to restore acid-base balance. Serum glucose of 300 mg/dl, serum potassium of 5.5 mEq/L, and serum sodium of 135 mEq/L are abnormal values, but they do not pose an immediate threat to the client's life compared to the metabolic acidosis indicated by the low serum bicarbonate level.
4. A confused, older client with Alzheimer's disease becomes incontinent of urine when attempting to find the bathroom. Which action should the nurse implement?
- A. Assist the client to a bedside commode every two hours
- B. Insert an indwelling catheter
- C. Use adult diapers to manage incontinence
- D. Restrict fluids in the evening
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement is to assist the client to a bedside commode every two hours. This approach, known as scheduled toileting, is essential in managing incontinence in clients with cognitive impairments like Alzheimer's disease. By providing regular assistance to the client to use the commode, the nurse can help maintain continence and reduce accidents. Inserting an indwelling catheter (Choice B) should be avoided if possible to prevent the risk of urinary tract infections. Using adult diapers (Choice C) should be considered a last resort and not the initial intervention. Restricting fluids in the evening (Choice D) is not appropriate as it may lead to dehydration and other complications.
5. A female client reports that she drank a liter of a solution to cleanse her intestines but vomited immediately after. How many ml of fluid intake should the nurse document?
- A. 1000 ml
- B. 800 ml
- C. 760 ml
- D. 500 ml
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is 760 ml. One liter equals 1000 ml. As the client vomited immediately after drinking, she would have expelled approximately 240 ml (1 cup). Subtracting this from the initial intake of 1000 ml gives us 760 ml as the remaining fluid intake that should be documented. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not reflect the correct calculation of subtracting the amount vomited from the initial intake.
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