Nursing Elites

1. Complete abortion is characterized by:

• A. Os closed.
• B. Firm contracted uterus.
• C. Heavy bleeding.
• D. Heavy cramping.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Complete abortion is characterized by a firm contracted uterus with a closed os. This closure of the os indicates that the products of conception have been completely expelled from the uterus. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because a firm contracted uterus with a closed os is the hallmark sign of a complete abortion, not heavy bleeding, heavy cramping, or any other features.

2. Which structure maintains the uterus in an anteverted and anteflexed position?

• A. Round ligaments
• B. Broad ligaments
• C. Cardinal ligaments
• D. Pubocervical ligaments

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is the Round ligaments. The round ligaments are responsible for maintaining the uterus in an anteverted and anteflexed position. These ligaments attach from the sides of the uterus and extend through the inguinal canal to the labia majora. The other choices, Broad ligaments, Cardinal ligaments, and Pubocervical ligaments, have different functions and attachments within the pelvis. Broad ligaments are a double layer of peritoneum that encloses the uterus and supports the uterine tubes. Cardinal ligaments provide support to the cervix and upper vagina. Pubocervical ligaments support the cervix and bladder.

3. In which of the following types of spontaneous abortions would the nurse assess dark brown vaginal discharge and a negative pregnancy test?

• A. Threatened
• B. Imminent
• C. Missed
• D. Incomplete

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Dark brown vaginal discharge and a negative pregnancy test are characteristic of a missed abortion. In a missed abortion, the fetus has died, but the products of conception are retained in the uterus. This can lead to symptoms like dark brown vaginal discharge as the body tries to expel the nonviable pregnancy. A threatened abortion is characterized by vaginal bleeding without dilation of the cervix, and the pregnancy remains viable. Imminent abortion involves cervical dilation and effacement with no passage of tissue. In an incomplete abortion, only part of the products of conception are expelled, leading to persistent bleeding and cramping.

4. The Gravindex test is used to detect Human Chorionic Gonadotrophic hormone (HCG) in:

• A. Urine or whole blood
• B. Amniotic fluid
• C. Saliva
• D. Cervical mucus

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Urine or whole blood. The Gravindex test is designed to detect Human Chorionic Gonadotrophic hormone (HCG) in urine or whole blood samples. HCG is a hormone produced during pregnancy, and its presence in urine or blood can indicate pregnancy. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as the Gravindex test is not intended to detect HCG in amniotic fluid, saliva, or cervical mucus. These bodily fluids are not typically used for pregnancy testing purposes.

5. Which of the following hormone ratios is MOST likely to be increased in a patient with PCOS?

• A. Progesterone/estrogen
• B. LH/FSH
• C. FSH/LH
• D. Glucagon/insulin

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In patients with Polycystic Ovary Syndrome (PCOS), the LH/FSH ratio is most likely to be increased. This hormonal imbalance is a key characteristic of PCOS, where elevated LH levels relative to FSH contribute to the pathophysiology of the condition. Choice A, progesterone/estrogen ratio, is not typically a defining feature of PCOS. Choice C, FSH/LH ratio, is the reverse of what is commonly observed in PCOS. Choice D, glucagon/insulin ratio, is not directly related to the hormonal imbalances seen in PCOS.

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