HESI RN
HESI Fundamentals Practice Exam
1. By rolling contaminated gloves inside-out, the healthcare professional is affecting which step in the chain of infection?
- A. Mode of transmission
- B. Portal of entry
- C. Reservoir
- D. Portal of exit
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When contaminated gloves are rolled inside-out, they are serving as a mode of transmission by carrying pathogens from the reservoir's portal of exit to a new portal of entry. This action increases the risk of transmitting infections from one person to another, emphasizing the importance of proper glove removal techniques to prevent the spread of pathogens. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect in this context. Portal of entry refers to the route through which a pathogen enters a susceptible host, reservoir is the habitat where the pathogen lives, grows, and multiplies, and portal of exit is the path through which a pathogen leaves its host.
2. A client with a suspected kidney infection is admitted to the hospital for observation. Which action should the nurse implement to assess the client’s kidney function?
- A. Monitor the client’s urine output
- B. Check for abdominal tenderness
- C. Evaluate the client’s fluid intake
- D. Inspect the client’s skin for edema
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Monitoring urine output is the most direct way to assess kidney function as it provides crucial information about the kidneys’ ability to filter waste and produce urine. Changes in urine output can indicate potential issues with kidney function, such as decreased filtration or impaired excretion of waste products.
3. A client with a diagnosis of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving oxygen via nasal cannula at 4 liters per minute. Which assessment finding indicates a need for immediate action?
- A. The client's respiratory rate is 14 breaths per minute.
- B. The client's oxygen saturation is 92%.
- C. The client reports shortness of breath.
- D. The client's respiratory rate is 24 breaths per minute.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A report of shortness of breath (C) indicates that the client is not tolerating the oxygen therapy well and may need an adjustment. Shortness of breath is a critical symptom in a client with COPD, as it signifies potential respiratory distress. A respiratory rate of 14 (A) is within an acceptable range for a client with COPD and does not require immediate action. An oxygen saturation of 92% (B) is slightly lower but still acceptable in COPD patients. Although a respiratory rate of 24 (D) is higher, it is not as immediately concerning as shortness of breath in this context.
4. When performing sterile wound care in the acute care setting, the nurse obtains a bottle of normal saline from the bedside table that is labeled 'opened' and dated 48 hours prior to the current date. Which is the best action for the nurse to take?
- A. Use the normal saline solution once more and then discard.
- B. Obtain a new sterile syringe to draw up the labeled saline solution.
- C. Use the saline solution and then relabel the bottle with the current date.
- D. Discard the saline solution and obtain a new unopened bottle.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When performing sterile wound care, it is essential to use only newly opened and unexpired solutions to maintain sterility and prevent infections. The normal saline solution obtained by the nurse is labeled 'opened' and dated 48 hours prior to the current date, making it no longer considered sterile. The best action for the nurse to take in this situation is to discard the saline solution and obtain a new unopened bottle to ensure the safety and effectiveness of wound care. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because reusing an already opened and outdated solution or attempting to relabel it with a current date can compromise patient safety and increase the risk of infection.
5. During a client assessment, the healthcare provider is evaluating cranial nerve function. Which assessment finding suggests that cranial nerve II is intact?
- A. The client can hear a whisper from 1 to 2 feet away.
- B. The client can identify an object by touch.
- C. The client can shrug the shoulders against resistance.
- D. The client can read a Snellen chart from 20 feet away.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The ability to read a Snellen chart from 20 feet away indicates intact cranial nerve II (optic nerve), responsible for vision. Hearing a whisper (A) is associated with cranial nerve VIII (vestibulocochlear nerve), identifying an object by touch (B) is related to cranial nerves V (trigeminal nerve) and VII (facial nerve), and shoulder shrugging against resistance (C) is a test for cranial nerve XI (accessory nerve). Thus, the correct answer is D as it specifically tests the function of cranial nerve II.
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