HESI RN
Maternity HESI 2023 Quizlet
1. At 39-weeks gestation, a multigravida is having a nonstress test (NST), the fetal heart rate (FHR) has remained non-reactive during 30 minutes of evaluation. Based on this finding, which action should the nurse implement?
- A. Initiate an intravenous infusion.
- B. Observe the FHR pattern for 30 more minutes.
- C. Schedule a biophysical profile.
- D. Place an acoustic stimulator on the abdomen.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In cases where the fetal heart rate remains non-reactive during an NST, using an acoustic stimulator on the abdomen can help stimulate fetal movement and promote heart rate reactivity. This intervention aims to assess the fetus's well-being and response to external stimuli, which can provide valuable information about fetal health status.
2. After a full-term vaginal delivery, a postpartum client's white blood cell count is 15,000/mm3. What action should the nurse take first?
- A. Check the differential, as the WBC count can be normal for this client.
- B. Assess the client's temperature, pulse, and respirations every 4 hours.
- C. Notify the healthcare provider, as this finding may indicate infection.
- D. Assess the client's perineal area for signs of a perineal hematoma.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In postpartum clients, a white blood cell count of 15,000/mm3 can be within normal limits due to physiological changes that occur after childbirth. Checking the differential count would provide a more detailed analysis of the specific types of white blood cells present, helping to differentiate between normal postpartum changes and potential infection. This action allows the nurse to gather more information before escalating the situation to the healthcare provider or initiating other assessments. Assessing vital signs and the perineal area are important aspects of postpartum care but may not be the priority in this scenario where the white blood cell count can be influenced by normal physiological changes.
3. The healthcare provider is preparing to administer phytonadione to a newborn. Which statement made by the parents indicates understanding why the healthcare provider is administering this medication?
- A. Prevent hemorrhagic disorders.
- B. Help an immature liver.
- C. Improve insufficient dietary intake.
- D. Stimulate the immune system.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Prevent hemorrhagic disorders.' Phytonadione (vitamin K) is administered to newborns to prevent hemorrhagic disease by promoting blood clotting. Newborns are born with low levels of vitamin K, which is essential for blood clotting, hence the administration to prevent hemorrhagic disorders. Choice B is incorrect because phytonadione is not given to help an immature liver but to supply vitamin K. Choice C is incorrect as phytonadione is not administered to improve dietary intake but to provide essential vitamin K. Choice D is incorrect as phytonadione does not stimulate the immune system but helps with blood clotting.
4. The healthcare provider is preparing to suture a 10-year-old with a lacerated forehead. Both parents and the 12-year-old sibling are at the child’s bedside. Which instruction best supports the family?
- A. While waiting for the healthcare provider, only one family member may stay with the child.
- B. All family members should leave while the healthcare provider sutures the child’s forehead.
- C. It is best if the sibling goes to the waiting room until the suturing is completed.
- D. Please decide among yourselves who will stay when the healthcare provider begins suturing.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Choice D is the best instruction as it involves the family in the decision-making process, allowing them to choose who will stay with the child during the suturing procedure. This approach supports the family's comfort and participation in the child's care, promoting a sense of control and family-centered care. Choices A, B, and C do not promote family involvement and may lead to feelings of exclusion or lack of control among the family members.
5. The LPN/LVN caring for a laboring client encourages her to void at least q2h, and records each time the client empties her bladder. What is the primary reason for implementing this nursing intervention?
- A. Emptying the bladder during delivery is difficult because of the position of the presenting fetal part.
- B. An over-distended bladder could be traumatized during labor as well as prolong the progress of labor.
- C. Urine specimens for glucose and protein must be obtained at certain intervals throughout labor.
- D. Frequent voiding minimizes the need for catheterization, which increases the chance of bladder infection.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The primary reason for encouraging the laboring client to void regularly is to prevent an over-distended bladder, which could impede the descent of the fetus, prolong labor, and be at risk for trauma during delivery. Choice A is incorrect because the difficulty in emptying the bladder during delivery is not the main reason for this nursing intervention. Choice C is incorrect as it pertains to obtaining urine specimens for glucose and protein, not the primary reason for encouraging voiding. Choice D is incorrect because although frequent voiding can indeed minimize the need for catheterization, the primary reason is to prevent an over-distended bladder and potential complications.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access