at 39 weeks gestation a multigravida is having a nonstress test nst the fetal heart rate fhr has remained non reactive during 30 minutes of evaluation
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Maternity HESI 2023 Quizlet

1. At 39-weeks gestation, a multigravida is having a nonstress test (NST), the fetal heart rate (FHR) has remained non-reactive during 30 minutes of evaluation. Based on this finding, which action should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In cases where the fetal heart rate remains non-reactive during an NST, using an acoustic stimulator on the abdomen can help stimulate fetal movement and promote heart rate reactivity. This intervention aims to assess the fetus's well-being and response to external stimuli, which can provide valuable information about fetal health status.

2. What action should be implemented when preparing to measure the fundal height of a pregnant client?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action when preparing to measure the fundal height of a pregnant client is to have the client empty her bladder. This is essential to ensure an accurate measurement because a full bladder can displace the uterus and affect the accuracy of the assessment. Choice B is incorrect because the client should lie flat on her back, not on her left side, to measure fundal height accurately. Choice C is incorrect because Leopold's maneuvers are used to determine the position of the fetus, not to measure fundal height. Choice D is incorrect as giving the client cold juice is not necessary for measuring fundal height.

3. A client at 32-weeks gestation is diagnosed with preeclampsia. Which assessment finding is most indicative of an impending convulsion?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client with preeclampsia, 3+ deep tendon reflexes and hyperreflexia are indicative of severe preeclampsia. These neurological signs suggest an increased risk for seizures, making option A the most indicative of an impending convulsion. Choices B, C, and D are not directly associated with an impending convulsion in a client with preeclampsia.

4. A 5-year-old child is admitted to the pediatric unit with fever and pain secondary to a sickle cell crisis. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a child with a sickle cell crisis, the priority intervention is to initiate normal saline IV at 50 ml/hr to manage dehydration and help alleviate pain. This intervention helps improve hydration status and supports the circulation of sickled red blood cells, reducing the risk of vaso-occlusive episodes and associated pain. Obtaining a culture of any sputum or wound drainage (Choice A) may be necessary but is not the initial priority. Administering a loading dose of penicillin IM (Choice C) is important but not the first intervention. Administering the initial dose of folic acid PO (Choice D) is beneficial but does not address the immediate need for hydration in a sickle cell crisis.

5. After each feeding, a 3-day-old newborn is spitting up large amounts of Enfamil® Newborn Formula, a nonfat cow's milk formula. The pediatric healthcare provider changes the neonate's formula to Similac® Soy Isomil® Formula, a soy protein isolate-based infant formula. What information should the LPN/LVN provide to the mother about the newly prescribed formula?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The LPN/LVN should inform the mother that Similac® Soy Isomil® Formula is a soy-based formula containing sucrose. This formula is suitable for infants with cow's milk protein allergy or intolerance, which may be the reason for the newborn spitting up large amounts of the previous cow's milk formula.

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