Nursing Elites

1. At 34-40 weeks of pregnancy, the breast changes include:

• A. Nipples become prominent and mobile.
• B. Colostrum can be expressed.
• C. Breasts become tender.
• D. Montgomery's tubercles are prominent.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During the 34-40 weeks of pregnancy, Montgomery's tubercles become prominent. These are sebaceous glands on the areola, not the nipples. Choice A is incorrect as it describes the changes in nipples, not Montgomery's tubercles. Choice B is incorrect as colostrum production usually starts around the 16th week. Choice C is incorrect as breast tenderness is more common in early pregnancy due to hormonal changes.

2. The patient about to undergo gynecological surgery is put on nil by mouth for ____ before surgery to prevent aspiration.

• A. 2-4 hours
• B. 3-5 hours
• C. 4-6 hours
• D. 5-7 hours

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Patients undergoing gynecological surgery are typically advised to be nil by mouth for 4-6 hours before the procedure to reduce the risk of aspiration. This duration allows the stomach to empty its contents, decreasing the likelihood of regurgitation and aspiration of stomach contents during surgery. Choices A, B, and D have shorter durations and may not provide sufficient time for adequate gastric emptying, increasing the risk of aspiration.

3. Which of the following is included in a pelvic examination?

• A. Inspection of internal genitalia
• B. Inspection of the cervix and vaginal wall
• C. Palpation of the vagina and vaginal cervix by digital examination
• D. Rectal examination

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A pelvic examination involves the inspection of the cervix and vaginal wall. This is typically done to assess the health of the reproductive organs and screen for any abnormalities. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because while palpation and digital examination may be part of a pelvic exam, the specific focus on the cervix and vaginal wall is a key component that distinguishes it from other types of examinations.

4. Which of the following is not a characteristic of an ideal contraceptive?

• A. Irreversible
• B. Easily available
• C. User-friendly
• D. Effective with least side effects

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Irreversible.' An ideal contraceptive should not be irreversible because it should allow individuals to have the option to discontinue its use if desired. Choices B, C, and D are characteristics of an ideal contraceptive. Contraceptives should be easily available to ensure widespread accessibility, user-friendly to promote proper and consistent use, and effective with minimal side effects to maximize safety and tolerability.

5. How many arteries are there in an umbilical cord?

• A. Three
• B. One
• C. Two
• D. Four

Correct answer: C

Rationale: There are two arteries in an umbilical cord. The umbilical cord contains two arteries and one vein. Artery carries blood away from the fetus, while the vein returns blood to the fetus. Therefore, choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not represent the correct number of arteries in an umbilical cord.

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