HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Capstone
1. An older client who had a subtotal parathyroidectomy is preparing for discharge. What finding requires immediate provider notification?
- A. Afebrile with a normal pulse.
- B. No bowel movement since surgery.
- C. No appetite for breakfast.
- D. A positive Chvostek's sign.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A positive Chvostek's sign indicates hypocalcemia, a complication after parathyroid surgery that requires immediate attention. This sign is manifested by facial muscle twitching when the facial nerve in front of the ear is tapped, indicating neuromuscular irritability due to low calcium levels. Afebrile with a normal pulse (Choice A) is a normal finding and does not require immediate notification. No bowel movement since surgery (Choice B) is common postoperatively due to anesthesia effects and pain medications and usually resolves within a few days; it does not require immediate notification unless accompanied by other concerning symptoms. No appetite for breakfast (Choice C) is a common postoperative finding and does not require immediate notification unless it persists and leads to dehydration or malnutrition.
2. A client's chest tube insertion site has crepitus (crackling sensation) upon palpation. What is the nurse's next step?
- A. Apply a pressure dressing to the chest tube site.
- B. Administer an oral antihistamine.
- C. Assess the client for allergies to cleaning agents.
- D. Measure the area of swelling and crackling.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct next step for the nurse is to measure the area of crepitus. Crepitus indicates subcutaneous emphysema, which is a serious condition requiring monitoring. Applying a pressure dressing (Choice A) could worsen the condition by trapping air under the skin. Administering an oral antihistamine (Choice B) is not indicated for crepitus. Assessing for allergies to cleaning agents (Choice C) is not the priority when dealing with crepitus and subcutaneous emphysema.
3. The nurse is administering an intradermal injection for a tuberculosis skin test. Which technique should the nurse use?
- A. Use a 25-gauge needle at a 90-degree angle
- B. Use a 27-gauge needle at a 15-degree angle
- C. Use a 22-gauge needle at a 45-degree angle
- D. Use a 20-gauge needle at a 90-degree angle
Correct answer: B
Rationale: An intradermal injection for a tuberculosis skin test should be administered using a 27-gauge needle at a 15-degree angle. This technique ensures that the medication is delivered into the dermis layer of the skin. Choice A is incorrect because a 25-gauge needle is too large for an intradermal injection. Choice C is incorrect as a 22-gauge needle is also too large and the angle is too steep for an intradermal injection. Choice D is incorrect as a 20-gauge needle is too large for an intradermal injection, and a 90-degree angle would not deliver the medication accurately into the dermis.
4. A client reports dizziness when standing up quickly. What advice should the nurse give?
- A. Encourage the client to drink more fluids.
- B. Change positions slowly to prevent dizziness.
- C. Report the symptom to the healthcare provider immediately.
- D. Limit physical activity to avoid triggering dizziness.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct advice for a client experiencing dizziness when standing up quickly is to change positions slowly to prevent dizziness. This symptom is suggestive of postural hypotension, where a sudden change in position can lead to a drop in blood pressure, causing dizziness. Encouraging the client to drink more fluids (Choice A) may be beneficial for other conditions but is not directly related to the prevention of dizziness in this case. Reporting the symptom to the healthcare provider immediately (Choice C) is important if the dizziness is persistent or severe, but the immediate action to prevent it is to change positions slowly. Limiting physical activity (Choice D) may not necessarily address the underlying cause of dizziness in this context.
5. A client with acute pancreatitis is receiving intravenous fluids and pain medication. What is the priority assessment for this client?
- A. Monitor bowel sounds
- B. Measure urine output
- C. Assess for abdominal tenderness
- D. Monitor blood glucose levels
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Monitor blood glucose levels. Clients with acute pancreatitis are prone to hyperglycemia due to impaired insulin production. Monitoring blood glucose levels is crucial to prevent complications like diabetic ketoacidosis. While assessing bowel sounds, urine output, and abdominal tenderness are important in the overall care of a client with acute pancreatitis, monitoring blood glucose levels takes priority to address the immediate risk of hyperglycemia.
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