Nursing Elites

1. After multiple attempts to stop drinking, an adult male is admitted to the medical intensive care unit (MICU) with delirium tremens. He is tachycardic, diaphoretic, restless, and disoriented. Which finding indicates a life-threatening condition?

• A. Widening QRS complexes and flat T waves
• B. Tachycardia and elevated blood pressure
• C. Restlessness and anxiety
• D. Diaphoresis and dehydration

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Widening QRS complexes and flat T waves. In the context of an adult male with delirium tremens and symptoms like tachycardia, diaphoresis, restlessness, and disorientation, the presence of widening QRS complexes and flat T waves on an ECG suggests severe electrolyte imbalance, particularly hypokalemia. This severe electrolyte imbalance can lead to life-threatening arrhythmias such as ventricular tachycardia or fibrillation. Tachycardia and elevated blood pressure (choice B) can be expected in delirium tremens but do not directly indicate a life-threatening condition as widening QRS complexes and flat T waves do. Restlessness and anxiety (choice C) are common symptoms of delirium tremens but do not specifically signify a life-threatening condition. Diaphoresis and dehydration (choice D) are also common in delirium tremens but do not directly point towards a life-threatening electrolyte imbalance as widening QRS complexes and flat T waves do.

2. A client with chronic liver disease is admitted with ascites and jaundice. Which assessment finding is most concerning?

• A. Enlarged spleen
• B. Increased abdominal girth
• C. Yellowing of the skin
• D. Confusion and altered mental status

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Confusion and altered mental status are concerning in a client with chronic liver disease, as they may indicate hepatic encephalopathy, a serious complication that requires immediate intervention. Enlarged spleen (choice A) can be a common finding in liver disease due to portal hypertension but may not be as acute as hepatic encephalopathy. Increased abdominal girth (choice B) is typically seen in ascites, which is already present in this client. Yellowing of the skin (choice C) is a manifestation of jaundice, also a known symptom in liver disease but not as acute as confusion and altered mental status.

3. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted with pneumonia. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Oxygen saturation of 90%
• B. Respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute
• C. Use of accessory muscles
• D. Inspiratory crackles

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. The use of accessory muscles indicates increased work of breathing and can signal respiratory failure in a client with COPD. This finding requires immediate intervention to prevent further respiratory compromise. Oxygen saturation of 90% indicates some oxygenation impairment but may not necessitate immediate intervention. A respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute is slightly elevated but does not indicate immediate respiratory distress. Inspiratory crackles may be present in pneumonia but do not require immediate intervention compared to the increased work of breathing indicated by the use of accessory muscles.

4. Which assessment finding of a postmenopausal woman necessitates a referral by the nurse to the healthcare provider for evaluation of thyroid functioning?

• A. Cold sensitivity.
• B. Hot flashes.
• C. Weight gain.
• D. Dry skin.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cold sensitivity. Cold sensitivity is a common symptom of hypothyroidism, a condition that affects the thyroid gland's ability to produce enough hormones. As a postmenopausal woman presents with cold sensitivity, it may indicate an underlying thyroid issue. Hot flashes (choice B) are more commonly associated with menopause than thyroid dysfunction. While weight gain (choice C) and dry skin (choice D) can also be symptoms of thyroid disorders, cold sensitivity is more specific and indicative of hypothyroidism, requiring prompt evaluation by a healthcare provider.

5. The nurse is assessing a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) who is receiving erythropoietin therapy. Which laboratory value should be closely monitored?

• A. Serum potassium level
• B. Hemoglobin level
• C. White blood cell count
• D. Serum sodium level of 135 mEq/L

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Serum potassium level. In clients receiving erythropoietin therapy for chronic kidney disease, monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial due to the risk of developing hyperkalemia. Erythropoietin therapy can stimulate red blood cell production, leading to an increase in potassium levels. Monitoring potassium levels helps prevent complications associated with hyperkalemia, such as cardiac arrhythmias. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while hemoglobin levels are relevant for assessing the effectiveness of erythropoietin therapy, monitoring potassium levels is more critical due to the potential adverse effects of elevated potassium levels in CKD patients on this therapy.

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