Nursing Elites

1. After multiple attempts to stop drinking, an adult male is admitted to the medical intensive care unit (MICU) with delirium tremens. He is tachycardic, diaphoretic, restless, and disoriented. Which finding indicates a life-threatening condition?

• A. Widening QRS complexes and flat T waves
• B. Tachycardia and elevated blood pressure
• C. Restlessness and anxiety
• D. Diaphoresis and dehydration

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Widening QRS complexes and flat T waves. In the context of an adult male with delirium tremens and symptoms like tachycardia, diaphoresis, restlessness, and disorientation, the presence of widening QRS complexes and flat T waves on an ECG suggests severe electrolyte imbalance, particularly hypokalemia. This severe electrolyte imbalance can lead to life-threatening arrhythmias such as ventricular tachycardia or fibrillation. Tachycardia and elevated blood pressure (choice B) can be expected in delirium tremens but do not directly indicate a life-threatening condition as widening QRS complexes and flat T waves do. Restlessness and anxiety (choice C) are common symptoms of delirium tremens but do not specifically signify a life-threatening condition. Diaphoresis and dehydration (choice D) are also common in delirium tremens but do not directly point towards a life-threatening electrolyte imbalance as widening QRS complexes and flat T waves do.

2. The nurse is assessing a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who is receiving supplemental oxygen. Which clinical finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Oxygen saturation of 90%
• B. Respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute
• C. Use of accessory muscles
• D. Inspiratory crackles

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Use of accessory muscles. In a client with COPD receiving supplemental oxygen, the use of accessory muscles is a critical finding that requires immediate intervention. This observation indicates increased work of breathing, suggesting respiratory distress. Addressing this issue promptly is crucial to prevent further respiratory compromise. Choice A, oxygen saturation of 90%, is slightly below the normal range but may not require immediate intervention unless it continues to decrease. Choice B, a respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute, is within normal limits for an adult and does not indicate an urgent issue. Choice D, inspiratory crackles, may be present in COPD due to secretions or inflammation but do not necessitate immediate intervention unless associated with other concerning signs.

3. A client with cirrhosis is admitted with hepatic encephalopathy. Which laboratory value requires immediate intervention?

• A. Serum ammonia level of 80 mcg/dl
• B. Bilirubin level of 3.0 mg/dl
• C. Serum sodium level of 135 mEq/L
• D. Prothrombin time of 18 seconds

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. A prothrombin time of 18 seconds is most concerning in a client with hepatic encephalopathy as it indicates impaired liver function and an increased risk of bleeding. This requires immediate intervention to prevent bleeding complications. Choice A, serum ammonia level of 80 mcg/dl, is elevated but not as urgent as the abnormal prothrombin time. Choice B, bilirubin level of 3.0 mg/dl, is elevated but does not directly indicate an urgent need for intervention in this situation. Choice C, serum sodium level of 135 mEq/L, is within the normal range and does not require immediate intervention.

4. An 11-year-old client is admitted to the mental health unit after trying to run away from home and threatening self-harm. The nurse establishes a goal to promote effective coping and plans to ask the client to verbalize three ways to deal with stress. Which activity is best to establish rapport and accomplish this therapeutic goal?

• A. Play a board game with the client and begin talking about stressors
• B. Conduct a formal therapy session
• C. Ask the client to write down their feelings
• D. Have a group discussion about stress management

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Playing a board game with the client and initiating a conversation about stressors is the best choice to establish rapport and achieve the therapeutic goal of helping the client verbalize ways to cope with stress. Board games provide a relaxed and non-threatening environment, allowing the client to feel more comfortable and open up about their stressors. Choice B, conducting a formal therapy session, might be too structured and intimidating for the client, hindering open communication. Choice C, asking the client to write down their feelings, lacks the interactive and engaging aspect that a board game provides. Choice D, having a group discussion about stress management, may not be as effective initially as one-on-one interaction to build trust and rapport with the client.

5. The nurse reviews the laboratory findings of a client with an open fracture of the tibia. The white blood cell (WBC) count and erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) are elevated. Before reporting this information to the healthcare provider, what assessment should the nurse obtain?

• A. Appearance of wound
• B. Pain level
• C. Presence of fever
• D. Mobility status

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Appearance of wound. Elevated WBC and ESR levels suggest a possible infection in the client with an open fracture. Assessing the wound's appearance is crucial to evaluate for signs of infection, such as redness, warmth, swelling, or drainage. By assessing the wound first, the nurse can provide important information to the healthcare provider regarding the potential infection, which may require immediate intervention. Choices B, C, and D are important assessments in caring for a client with an open fracture; however, in this scenario, the priority is to assess the wound for signs of infection due to the elevated WBC and ESR levels.

Similar Questions