after checking the fingerstick glucose at 1630 what action should the nurse implement
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI 799 RN Exit Exam Quizlet

1. After checking the fingerstick glucose at 1630, what action should be implemented?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering insulin aspart (rapid-acting insulin) is the appropriate action to manage the elevated glucose level of 1630. Choice A, notifying the healthcare provider, is not the immediate action needed for this glucose level. Choice C, giving an IV bolus of Dextrose 50%, would exacerbate hyperglycemia instead of treating it. Choice D, performing quality control on the glucometer, is not relevant to the management of the patient's glucose level at this time.

2. A client with type 1 diabetes is admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which intervention is most important?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Administering insulin is the most important intervention in managing diabetic ketoacidosis. In DKA, there is a lack of insulin leading to hyperglycemia and ketosis. Insulin administration helps to reduce blood glucose levels and correct metabolic acidosis, which are crucial in treating DKA. Administering intravenous fluids helps with dehydration, monitoring urine output is important to assess renal function, but the priority is addressing the underlying cause of DKA by administering insulin. Administering 50% dextrose IV push is incorrect as it would further elevate blood glucose levels, which is contraindicated in DKA.

3. The nurse is assessing a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who is receiving supplemental oxygen. Which clinical finding requires immediate intervention?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Use of accessory muscles. In a client with COPD receiving supplemental oxygen, the use of accessory muscles is a critical finding that requires immediate intervention. This observation indicates increased work of breathing, suggesting respiratory distress. Addressing this issue promptly is crucial to prevent further respiratory compromise. Choice A, oxygen saturation of 90%, is slightly below the normal range but may not require immediate intervention unless it continues to decrease. Choice B, a respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute, is within normal limits for an adult and does not indicate an urgent issue. Choice D, inspiratory crackles, may be present in COPD due to secretions or inflammation but do not necessitate immediate intervention unless associated with other concerning signs.

4. Following routine diagnostic tests, a client who is symptom-free is diagnosed with Paget's disease. Client teaching should be directed toward what important goal for this client?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In Paget's disease, bone remodeling is affected, leading to increased risk for fractures. Therefore, the primary goal of client teaching should focus on reducing the risk for injury. Choices A and B are not directly related to the primary concern of Paget's disease, which is bone fractures. Choice C, promoting rest and sleep, is important for overall health but is not the priority when considering the specific risks associated with Paget's disease.

5. A client with rheumatoid arthritis is prescribed methotrexate. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Liver function tests. Methotrexate can cause hepatotoxicity, making it essential to closely monitor liver function tests in clients receiving this medication. Monitoring white blood cell count, hemoglobin, or platelet count is not specifically required for methotrexate therapy and would not provide relevant information regarding potential adverse effects of the medication.

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