Nursing Elites

1. According to Erikson's theory, what behavioral pattern should be displayed by a child who has not developed a sense of competence?

• A. Guilt.
• B. Shame.
• C. Alienation.
• D. Inferiority.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Erikson's theory of psychosocial development outlines that the failure to establish a sense of competence during the industry vs. inferiority stage results in feelings of inferiority. This stage occurs during middle childhood where children strive to master skills and tasks. If they are unable to meet challenges successfully, they may start feeling inferior to their peers and may lack confidence in their abilities. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as guilt, shame, and alienation are not the specific behavioral patterns associated with the lack of developing a sense of competence according to Erikson's theory.

2. A 9-year-old child is brought to the clinic with complaints of fatigue, pallor, and shortness of breath. The nurse notes that the child has a history of iron-deficiency anemia. What is the nurse’s priority action?

• A. Administer iron supplements as prescribed
• B. Monitor the child’s hemoglobin levels
• C. Educate the parents about dietary sources of iron
• D. Notify the healthcare provider

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a child with a history of iron-deficiency anemia presenting with symptoms of fatigue, pallor, and shortness of breath, the priority action for the nurse is to administer iron supplements as prescribed. Iron supplementation is essential to treat iron-deficiency anemia and improve the child's symptoms promptly. Monitoring hemoglobin levels is important but administering iron supplements takes precedence to address the underlying cause. Educating parents about dietary iron sources is valuable for prevention but not the immediate priority. Notifying the healthcare provider may be necessary but should not delay the initiation of treatment with iron supplements.

3. A 4-year-old child is brought to the clinic with complaints of ear pain and fever. The practical nurse suspects otitis media. Which symptom supports this suspicion?

• A. Clear nasal discharge.
• B. Dry, hacking cough.
• C. Tugging at the ear.
• D. Sore throat.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Tugging at the ear is a common symptom in children with otitis media. It often indicates discomfort or pain in the ear, suggesting inflammation or infection in the middle ear. This behavior is frequently observed in young children who are unable to express their discomfort verbally, making it a significant clinical indicator for otitis media in this age group. Clear nasal discharge (Choice A) is more indicative of a cold or allergies, while a dry, hacking cough (Choice B) is not typically associated with otitis media. Although a sore throat (Choice D) can sometimes accompany ear infections, tugging at the ear is a more specific and reliable symptom in this case.

4. In a 7-year-old child with a history of asthma experiencing an acute asthma exacerbation and displaying wheezing and the use of accessory muscles to breathe, what is the nurse’s priority intervention?

• A. Administer a nebulized bronchodilator
• B. Obtain an arterial blood gas
• C. Start the child on oxygen therapy
• D. Notify the healthcare provider

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer a nebulized bronchodilator. During an acute asthma exacerbation in a child with wheezing and increased work of breathing, the priority intervention is to provide immediate bronchodilation to dilate the airways, relieve bronchospasm, and improve breathing. This intervention aims to manage the acute asthma attack effectively and prevent further respiratory distress. Obtaining an arterial blood gas, starting oxygen therapy, or notifying the healthcare provider are important actions, but administering a bronchodilator takes precedence in addressing the acute respiratory compromise.

5. An 8-year-old male client with nephrotic syndrome is receiving salt-poor human albumin IV. Which findings indicate to the nurse that the child is manifesting a therapeutic response?

• A. Decreased urinary output
• B. Decreased periorbital edema
• C. Increased periods of rest
• D. Weight gain of 0.5 kg/day

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In nephrotic syndrome treatment, decreased periorbital edema is a positive therapeutic response as it indicates a reduction in fluid retention. Periorbital edema is a common symptom of nephrotic syndrome due to fluid accumulation, so a decrease in this swelling signifies an improvement in the condition.

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