Nursing Elites

1. A woman is in the active phase of labor. An external monitor has been applied, and a fetal heart deceleration of uniform shape is observed, beginning just as the contraction is underway and returning to the baseline at the end of the contraction. Which of the following nursing actions is most appropriate?

• A. Administer O2 if necessary.
• B. Turn the client on her left side.
• C. Notify the physician.
• D. No action is necessary.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'No action is necessary.' In this scenario, the fetal heart deceleration of uniform shape observed is an early deceleration resulting from head compression. Early decelerations are benign and typically do not require any intervention as they mirror the contraction pattern. It is essential to closely observe both the mother and the baby. Administering O2 (Choice A) is not necessary as early decelerations do not indicate fetal distress. Turning the client on her left side (Choice B) is not required for early decelerations. Notifying the physician (Choice C) is not needed for this type of deceleration, as it is a normal response to head compression during labor.

2. Which of the following arterial blood gas values indicates a patient may be experiencing a condition of metabolic acidosis?

• A. PaO2 90 mm Hg
• B. Bicarbonate 15 mEq/L
• C. CO2 47 mm Hg
• D. pH 7.34

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Bicarbonate 15 mEq/L. In metabolic acidosis, the bicarbonate levels are lower than normal. A bicarbonate value of 15 mEq/L indicates a deficit in the buffer system, contributing to the acidosis. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Choice A, PaO2 90 mm Hg, reflects oxygen partial pressure and is not directly related to metabolic acidosis. Choice C, CO2 47 mm Hg, represents carbon dioxide levels and is more indicative of respiratory status. Choice D, pH 7.34, falls within the normal range (7.35-7.45) and does not confirm metabolic acidosis.

3. The nurse is teaching a community health class for cancer prevention and screening. Which individual has the highest risk for colon cancer?

• A. Client with irritable bowel syndrome
• B. Family history of colon polyps
• C. Client with cirrhosis of the liver
• D. History of colon surgery

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A family history of colon polyps and/or colon cancer is a significant risk factor for developing colon cancer. Individuals with a family history are more likely to develop colon cancer due to genetic predisposition. While other factors like irritable bowel syndrome, cirrhosis of the liver, and history of colon surgery may contribute to an increased risk of colon cancer, having a family history of colon polyps is the highest risk factor. Irritable bowel syndrome does not directly increase the risk of colon cancer. Cirrhosis of the liver is associated with liver cancer rather than colon cancer. A history of colon surgery may reduce the risk of colon cancer in some cases by removing precancerous polyps.

4. A patient has been diagnosed with Guillain-Barre Syndrome. Which of the following statements is the most applicable when discussing the impairments with Guillain-Barre Syndrome with the patient?

• A. Guillain-Barre Syndrome improves in almost all cases within 5 years.
• B. Guillain-Barre Syndrome causes limited sensation in the abdominal region.
• C. Guillain-Barre Syndrome causes muscle weakness in the legs.
• D. Guillain-Barre Syndrome affects breathing in severe cases.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct statement is that Guillain-Barre Syndrome causes muscle weakness in the legs. This muscle weakness typically starts in the legs and can progress to the upper body. Choice A is incorrect as while most cases do improve, the recovery time can vary. Choice B is incorrect as Guillain-Barre Syndrome primarily affects muscle weakness rather than sensation. Choice D is incorrect as severe cases of Guillain-Barre Syndrome can lead to respiratory muscle weakness, impacting breathing.

5. The client is scheduled for surgical repair of a detached retina. What is the most likely preoperative nursing diagnosis for this client?

• A. Anxiety related to loss of vision and potential failure to regain vision.
• B. Deficient knowledge (preoperative and postoperative activities) related to lack of information.
• C. Acute pain related to tissue injury and decreased circulation to the eye.
• D. Risk for infection related to the eye injury.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct preoperative nursing diagnosis for a client scheduled for surgical repair of a detached retina is 'Anxiety related to loss of vision and potential failure to regain vision.' A client facing the threat of permanent blindness due to a detached retina is likely to experience anxiety. Addressing this anxiety is crucial before providing education, as severe anxiety can hinder the client's ability to absorb new information. The nurse should offer emotional support, encourage the client to express concerns, and clarify any misconceptions. Acute pain is not a typical symptom of a detached retina, and the risk of infection preoperatively is minimal, making choices C and D less relevant in this scenario.

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