a primigravida at term comes to the prenatal clinic and tells the nurse that she is having contractions every 5 min the nurse monitors the client for
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI RN CAT Exit Exam 1

1. A primigravida at term comes to the prenatal clinic and tells the nurse that she is having contractions every 5 min. The nurse monitors the client for one hour, using an external fetal monitor, and determines that the client’s contractions are 7 to 15 minutes apart, lasting 20 to 30 seconds, with mild intensity by palpation. What action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The client should be instructed to call when contractions are 5 minutes apart for an hour to ensure she is in active labor before going to the hospital.

2. When caring for a laboring client whose contractions are occurring every 2 to 3 min, the nurse should document that the pump is infusing how many ml/hr?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the infusion rate, we first need to determine the frequency of contractions per hour. If contractions are occurring every 2 to 3 minutes, this corresponds to 20 to 30 contractions in an hour (60 minutes). The average is 25 contractions in an hour. The pump should be infusing 1 ml for each contraction, so the infusion rate should be 25 ml/hr. Therefore, the correct answer is 42 ml/hr. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the calculation based on the given data.

3. In the newborn nursery, the nurse admits a baby from labor and delivery who is suspected of having a congenital heart disease. Which finding helps to confirm this diagnosis?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Centralized cyanosis and tachycardia are classic signs of congenital heart disease. Choice A is incorrect because cyanosis in the hands and feet is not specific to congenital heart disease. Choice B is incorrect as the vital signs provided are not specific indicators of congenital heart disease. Choice D is unrelated to the typical signs of congenital heart disease.

4. The nurse is performing a physical assessment of a male client who has chronic renal failure. Which assessment finding is most important for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client with chronic renal failure, difficulty breathing is the most critical finding to report. This symptom may indicate fluid overload or pulmonary edema, which can be life-threatening. Shortness of breath when lying flat (orthopnea) is also concerning but less urgent than difficulty breathing. Swelling in the feet and ankles (edema) is a common finding in renal failure but may not be as immediately critical as difficulty breathing. A metallic taste in the mouth is associated with uremia, a common complication of chronic renal failure, but it is not as urgent as respiratory distress.

5. The nurse assesses a client who is receiving an infusion of 5% dextrose in water with 20 mEq of potassium chloride. The client has oliguria and a serum potassium level of 6.5 mEq/L. What action should the nurse implement first?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement first is to stop the infusion. Stopping the infusion is crucial to prevent further potassium from being administered, which can exacerbate the client's hyperkalemia. Notifying the healthcare provider of the laboratory results (Choice A) can be done after taking immediate action to stop the infusion. Decreasing the rate of the IV infusion (Choice B) may not be sufficient to address the high potassium level quickly. Administering sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate) (Choice D) is not the initial action for managing hyperkalemia; stopping the potassium infusion takes precedence.

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