Nursing Elites

1. A 2-year-old boy with short bowel syndrome has progressed to receiving enteral feedings only. Today his stools are occurring more frequently and have a more liquid consistency. His temperature is 102.2°F and he has vomited twice in the past four hours. Which assessment finding indicates that the child is becoming dehydrated?

• A. Occult blood in the stool
• B. Abdominal distention
• C. Elevated urine specific gravity
• D. Hyperactive bowel sounds

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Elevated urine specific gravity is a sign of dehydration in children. In the scenario provided, the child is experiencing increased stool frequency, liquid consistency, fever, and vomiting, indicating fluid loss and potential dehydration. Occult blood in the stool may suggest gastrointestinal bleeding but is not a direct indicator of dehydration. Abdominal distention can be seen in various conditions and is not specific to dehydration. Hyperactive bowel sounds are more commonly associated with increased bowel motility, not necessarily dehydration.

2. A 20-year-old male client is diagnosed with Ewing's sarcoma following examination for a knee injury. Which instruction is most important for the nurse to provide the client?

• A. Take analgesics regularly to reduce the pain
• B. Notify the healthcare provider if the swelling worsens
• C. Avoid weight-bearing until the injury heals
• D. Seek treatment for the sarcoma immediately

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to seek treatment for the sarcoma immediately. Ewing's sarcoma is an aggressive cancer, and prompt treatment is crucial for improving prognosis. Option A is incorrect because while pain management is important, addressing the underlying cause (sarcoma) is the priority. Option B is not as critical as seeking treatment for the sarcoma itself. Option C is not the most important instruction as the primary concern is addressing the cancer diagnosis.

3. A client is leaving the hospital against medical advice (AMA) and voluntarily signs the AMA form. Which nursing action is essential prior to the client leaving?

• A. Remove the client's peripheral IV access
• B. Administer requested pain relief medication
• C. Obtain the client's neurological vital signs
• D. Provide the client with the hospital's phone number

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Removing the client's peripheral IV access is essential before the client leaves against medical advice to prevent complications such as infection, thrombosis, or bleeding. Administering pain relief medication (choice B) can be important but not essential at this point. Obtaining neurological vital signs (choice C) is not specifically required before the client leaves. Providing the client with the hospital's phone number (choice D) may be helpful but is not as essential as ensuring the safe removal of IV access.

4. A 7-year-old with cystic fibrosis (CF) has received instructions about home care. Which statement made by the child's mother indicates that further teaching is needed?

• A. My child should not have a cough at all times
• B. He needs to take pancreatic enzymes with meals and snacks
• C. He needs to use a bronchodilator every day
• D. His dietary intake needs to be high in protein and calories

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. A cough at all times is not normal in a child with cystic fibrosis (CF) and indicates the need for further teaching on CF management. Choices B, C, and D are correct statements in managing CF: taking pancreatic enzymes with meals and snacks, using a bronchodilator daily, and maintaining a high-protein and high-calorie dietary intake are all appropriate for a child with CF.

5. In preparing to administer a scheduled dose of intravenous furosemide (Lasix) to a client with heart failure, the nurse notes that the client's B-Type Naturetic peptide (BNP) is elevated. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Measure the client's oxygen saturation before taking further action
• B. Administer a PRN dose of nitroglycerin (Nitrostat)
• C. Administer the dose of furosemide as scheduled
• D. Hold the dose of furosemide until contacting the healthcare provider

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Administering the scheduled dose of furosemide is appropriate when a client with heart failure has an elevated BNP level. BNP elevation indicates fluid overload, and furosemide is a diuretic that helps in reducing excess fluid. Measuring the client's oxygen saturation (Choice A) is not directly related to addressing fluid overload. Administering nitroglycerin (Choice B) is not indicated for managing elevated BNP levels. Holding the furosemide dose (Choice D) would delay appropriate treatment for fluid overload.

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