Nursing Elites

1. A patient has just been prescribed Minipress to control hypertension. The nurse should instruct the patient to be observant of the following:

• A. Dizziness and light-headed sensations
• B. Weight gain
• C. Sensory changes in the lower extremities
• D. Fatigue

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Dizziness and light-headed sensations.' Minipress, a medication used to control hypertension, can cause hypotension as a side effect. Dizziness and light-headed sensations are common symptoms of hypotension. Weight gain, sensory changes in the lower extremities, and fatigue are not typically associated with Minipress or hypertension management. Therefore, they are incorrect choices.

2. When caring for a client with a possible diagnosis of placenta previa, which of the following admission procedures should the nurse omit?

• A. perineal shave
• B. enema
• C. urine specimen collection
• D. blood specimen collection

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'enema.' Administering an enema to a client with placenta previa can dislodge the placenta, leading to an increased risk of bleeding and complications. It is crucial to avoid any interventions that may disrupt the placenta's positioning. Collecting urine and blood specimens are necessary for diagnostic purposes and monitoring, while a perineal shave is a routine procedure that does not pose a risk to the client with placenta previa.

3. Which of the following individuals is at the highest risk for suicide?

• A. 76-year-old widow with chronic renal failure
• B. 19-year-old with new SSRI therapy
• C. 28-year-old post-partum crying weekly
• D. 50-year-old client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) and depression

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is the 76-year-old widow with chronic renal failure. Elderly individuals with chronic diseases, especially men, are at very high risk for suicide. The other choices, although they may be vulnerable populations, do not carry as high a risk for suicide. The 19-year-old with new SSRI therapy may actually have a lower risk as they are receiving treatment. The 28-year-old post-partum individual is experiencing a common emotional response after childbirth, which is not necessarily indicative of a high suicide risk. The 50-year-old with OCD and depression is at risk but not as high as elderly individuals with chronic illness.

4. The nurse has just received a change-of-shift report. Which client should the nurse assess first?

• A. A client 2 hours post-lobectomy with 150cc drainage
• B. A client 2 days post-gastrectomy with scant drainage
• C. A client with pneumonia with an oral temperature of 102�F
• D. A client with a fractured hip in Buck's traction

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should assess the client 2 hours post-lobectomy with 150cc drainage first because postoperative assessments are crucial during the immediate postoperative period. This client may be at higher risk for complications, such as bleeding or infection, requiring immediate attention. Clients in choices B, C, and D are relatively stable and can be assessed after the immediate postoperative client has been evaluated.

5. A client is admitted for observation following an unrestrained motor vehicle accident. A bystander stated that he lost consciousness for 1-2 minutes. On admission, the client's Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) was 14. The GCS is now 12. The nurse should:

• A. Re-assess in 15 minutes
• B. Stimulate the client with a sternal rub
• C. Administer Tylenol with codeine for a headache
• D. Notify the physician

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A decrease in the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score from 14 to 12 indicates a significant neurological change in the client's condition. This change can be indicative of a deterioration in the client's neurological status, possibly due to intracranial bleeding or swelling. It is crucial for the nurse to notify the physician immediately to ensure prompt evaluation and intervention. Re-assessing in 15 minutes or stimulating the client with a sternal rub are not appropriate actions in this situation as they do not address the underlying cause of the decrease in GCS. Administering Tylenol with codeine for a headache is also not recommended without further assessment and evaluation of the client's condition.

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