Nursing Elites

1. A patient has begun taking spironolactone (Aldactone) in addition to a thiazide diuretic. With the addition of the spironolactone, the nurse will counsel this patient to

• A. not take a potassium supplement daily.
• B. recognize that abdominal cramping is a common side effect.
• C. report decreased urine output to the provider.
• D. take these medications in the morning.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When combining a potassium-sparing diuretic like spironolactone with a thiazide diuretic, there is an increased risk of hyperkalemia, especially in patients with poor renal function. Therefore, the patient should be educated to report any decrease in urine output, which could indicate a potential issue with kidney function. Choice A is incorrect because taking additional potassium supplements can further increase the risk of hyperkalemia. Choice B is incorrect as abdominal cramping is not a common side effect of spironolactone. Choice D is incorrect because the timing of medication administration is not directly related to the addition of spironolactone and thiazide diuretic; there is no specific recommendation to take these medications only at bedtime.

2. The healthcare provider is assessing a client who is receiving hemodialysis for the first time. Which of the following findings should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately?

• A. Blood pressure of 150/90 mm Hg.
• B. Nausea and vomiting.
• C. Fatigue.
• D. Headache.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Nausea and vomiting are critical symptoms that should be reported immediately when a client is receiving hemodialysis for the first time. These symptoms could indicate a severe complication, such as hypotension, infection, electrolyte imbalance, or other adverse reactions to the procedure. It is essential to address these symptoms promptly to prevent further complications or harm to the client. Choices A, C, and D are not immediate concerns during the first hemodialysis session and can be addressed appropriately after addressing the urgent issue of nausea and vomiting.

3. The nurse explains to the client with Hodgkin's disease that a bone marrow biopsy will be taken after the aspiration. What should the nurse explain about the biopsy?

• A. The biopsy will confirm the diagnosis of Hodgkin's disease.
• B. The biopsy will show the extent of the disease in the bones.
• C. The biopsy will be done to check for infection in the bones.
• D. The biopsy will help determine the best treatment for the disease.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A bone marrow biopsy helps determine the best treatment plan for Hodgkin's disease by providing crucial information about the extent and nature of the disease. While confirming the diagnosis is important, the primary purpose of the biopsy in this case is to guide treatment decisions. The biopsy is not primarily for assessing the extent of the disease in the bones or checking for infections in the bones.

4. A client who has had two episodes of bacterial cystitis in the last 6 months is being assessed by a nurse. Which questions should the nurse ask? (Select all that apply.)

• A. How much water do you drink every day?
• B. Do you take estrogen replacement therapy?
• C. Does anyone in your family have a history of cystitis?
• D. All of the Above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answers are all of the above (D). Asking about fluid intake (choice A) is important as it can affect the risk of cystitis. Estrogen levels (choice B) can also impact the likelihood of recurrent cystitis. Family history (choice C) is relevant as certain genetic factors can predispose individuals to cystitis. Cranberry juice, not grapefruit or orange juice, has been found to reduce the risk of bacterial cystitis by increasing the acidic pH. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are all pertinent questions to ask during the assessment of a client with recurrent bacterial cystitis.

5. The nurse is caring for a patient whose serum sodium level is 140 mEq/L and serum potassium level is 5.4 mEq/L. The nurse will contact the patient’s provider to discuss an order for

• A. a low-potassium diet.
• B. intravenous sodium bicarbonate.
• C. Kayexalate and sorbitol.
• D. salt substitutes.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the scenario presented, the patient is experiencing mild hyperkalemia with a potassium level of 5.4 mEq/L. The appropriate intervention for mild hyperkalemia is a low-potassium diet to restrict potassium intake. This helps in managing and preventing further elevation of potassium levels. Intravenous sodium bicarbonate is not indicated as the patient's sodium level is normal at 140 mEq/L. Kayexalate, a cation-exchange resin, is typically used for severe hyperkalemia to promote potassium excretion. Salt substitutes, which often contain potassium chloride, should be avoided in patients with hyperkalemia as they can exacerbate the condition by increasing potassium levels further.

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