HESI RN
HESI Medical Surgical Specialty Exam
1. A patient has begun taking spironolactone (Aldactone) in addition to a thiazide diuretic. With the addition of the spironolactone, the nurse will counsel this patient to
- A. not take a potassium supplement daily.
- B. recognize that abdominal cramping is a common side effect.
- C. report decreased urine output to the provider.
- D. take these medications in the morning.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When combining a potassium-sparing diuretic like spironolactone with a thiazide diuretic, there is an increased risk of hyperkalemia, especially in patients with poor renal function. Therefore, the patient should be educated to report any decrease in urine output, which could indicate a potential issue with kidney function. Choice A is incorrect because taking additional potassium supplements can further increase the risk of hyperkalemia. Choice B is incorrect as abdominal cramping is not a common side effect of spironolactone. Choice D is incorrect because the timing of medication administration is not directly related to the addition of spironolactone and thiazide diuretic; there is no specific recommendation to take these medications only at bedtime.
2. A client is receiving continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis. Which of the following statements indicates the need for more teaching by the nurse?
- A. I should take all my medications every morning.
- B. The catheter should always remain in place.
- C. The catheter should be flushed daily with sterile saline.
- D. If I gain 2 pounds, I should skip dialysis that day.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Gaining weight is a sign that the client may be retaining fluid, indicating a need for dialysis to remove excess fluid. Skipping dialysis based on weight gain can lead to fluid overload, electrolyte imbalances, and other serious complications. Choices A, B, and C are all correct statements regarding peritoneal dialysis care: taking medications as prescribed is essential for overall health, ensuring the catheter remains in place is crucial to prevent infection, and flushing the catheter with sterile saline daily helps maintain its patency and reduce the risk of infections.
3. A client with chronic renal failure is receiving erythropoietin therapy. The nurse should assess the client for which of the following side effects?
- A. Hypotension.
- B. Hypertension.
- C. Hyperglycemia.
- D. Hypercalcemia.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypertension. Erythropoietin therapy can lead to an increase in blood pressure, making hypertension a common side effect that the nurse should closely monitor. Hypotension (choice A) is not typically associated with erythropoietin therapy. Hyperglycemia (choice C) and hypercalcemia (choice D) are not commonly linked to erythropoietin therapy in clients with chronic renal failure, making them incorrect choices.
4. A 68-year-old client on day 2 after hip surgery has no cardiac history but reports having chest heaviness. The first nursing action should be to:
- A. Inquire about the onset, duration, severity, and precipitating factors of the heaviness.
- B. Administer oxygen via nasal cannula.
- C. Offer pain medication for the chest heaviness.
- D. Inform the physician of the chest heaviness.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct first nursing action when a client reports chest heaviness post-hip surgery is to gather more information through assessment. Inquiring about the onset, duration, severity, and precipitating factors of the heaviness is crucial to determine the cause. This approach helps the nurse to gather essential data to make an informed decision regarding the client's care. Administering oxygen (Choice B) may be indicated based on assessment findings, but it is crucial to assess first. Offering pain medication (Choice C) without further assessment is premature and may mask symptoms. Informing the physician (Choice D) should be done after a thorough assessment to provide comprehensive information for appropriate medical decision-making.
5. A marathon runner comes into the clinic and states, 'I have not urinated very much in the last few days.' The nurse notes a heart rate of 110 beats/min and a blood pressure of 86/58 mm Hg. Which action by the nurse is the priority?
- A. Give the client a bottle of water immediately.
- B. Start an intravenous line for fluids.
- C. Teach the client to drink 2 to 3 liters of water daily.
- D. Perform an electrocardiogram.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The priority action for the nurse is to give the client a bottle of water immediately. The athlete's symptoms of decreased urination, along with a heart rate of 110 beats/min and low blood pressure of 86/58 mm Hg, indicate mild dehydration. Rehydration should begin promptly to address the dehydration. Teaching the client to drink 2 to 3 liters of water daily is a good long-term strategy but not the immediate priority. Starting an intravenous line for fluids may be necessary if oral hydration is insufficient or if the degree of dehydration is severe. Performing an electrocardiogram is not indicated at this time as the priority is addressing the dehydration.
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