Nursing Elites

1. A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus has a blood glucose level of 620 mg/dL. After the nurse calls the physician to report the finding and monitors the client closely for:

• A. Metabolic acidosis
• B. Metabolic alkalosis
• C. Respiratory acidosis
• D. Respiratory alkalosis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the scenario described, a client with a blood glucose level of 620 mg/dL and type 1 diabetes mellitus is at risk of developing metabolic acidosis. In type 1 diabetes, the lack of sufficient circulating insulin leads to an increase in blood glucose levels. As the body cells utilize all available glucose, the breakdown of fats for energy results in the production of ketones, leading to metabolic acidosis. Metabolic alkalosis, respiratory acidosis, and respiratory alkalosis are not typically associated with uncontrolled type 1 diabetes. Metabolic alkalosis is more commonly linked to conditions such as vomiting or excessive diuretic use, while respiratory acidosis and respiratory alkalosis are related to respiratory system imbalances in carbon dioxide levels.

2. A nurse performing nasopharyngeal suctioning suddenly notes the presence of bloody secretions. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Continue suctioning to remove the blood
• B. Check the degree of suction being applied
• C. Encourage the client to cough out the bloody secretions
• D. Remove the suction catheter from the client’s nose and begin vigorous suctioning through the mouth

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to check the degree of suction being applied (Choice B). When bloody secretions are encountered during nasopharyngeal suctioning, it is crucial to assess the situation promptly. Checking the degree of suction being applied is the first step as excessive suction pressure may be causing trauma and bleeding. Adjusting the suction pressure may be necessary to prevent further harm. Continuing suctioning to remove the blood (Choice A) or performing vigorous suctioning through the mouth (Choice D) can lead to increased trauma and worsen bleeding. Encouraging the client to cough out the bloody secretions (Choice C) is not appropriate since the client undergoing suctioning is typically unable to expectorate secretions. Therefore, the priority is to check and adjust the suction settings to ensure safe and effective suctioning.

3. A client without a history of respiratory disease has a pulse oximeter in place after surgery. The nurse monitors the pulse oximeter readings to ensure that oxygen saturation remains above:

• A. 85%
• B. 89%
• C. 95%
• D. 100%

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Pulse oximetry is a noninvasive method of continuously monitoring the oxygen saturation of hemoglobin (SaO2). In the absence of underlying respiratory disease, the expected oxygen saturation level is at least 95%. Oxygen saturation levels below 95% may indicate hypoxemia, which can compromise tissue perfusion and oxygen delivery to vital organs. Therefore, maintaining oxygen saturation above 95% is crucial to ensure adequate oxygenation post-surgery. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they represent oxygen saturation levels that are below the expected value for a client without a history of respiratory disease, which should be at least 95%.

4. A patient is diagnosed with Mycoplasma pneumonia. Which antibiotic will the nurse expect the provider to order to treat this infection?

• A. Azithromycin (Zithromax)
• B. Clarithromycin (Biaxin)
• C. Erythromycin (E-Mycin)
• D. Fidaxomicin (Dificid)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Erythromycin is the drug of choice for treating Mycoplasma pneumonia. Mycoplasma pneumonia is typically sensitive to macrolide antibiotics, with erythromycin being one of the first-line agents. Azithromycin and clarithromycin are also effective in treating Mycoplasma pneumonia, but erythromycin is specifically mentioned as the drug of choice in this context. Fidaxomicin, on the other hand, is not indicated for the treatment of Mycoplasma pneumonia and is primarily used to treat Clostridium difficile infections.

5. The client is scheduled to begin continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD). Which of the following statements by the client indicates that more teaching is required?

• A. I will need to limit my intake of protein.
• B. I can skip a dialysis session if I feel tired.
• C. I should increase my intake of potassium-rich foods.
• D. I can eat whatever I want, as long as I take my medications.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Skipping a dialysis session can lead to serious complications as it disrupts the treatment schedule and can result in the accumulation of waste products and fluid in the body. The client must understand the importance of adhering to the prescribed dialysis regimen to maintain optimal health. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because limiting protein intake, increasing potassium-rich foods, and taking medications do not pose the same risk as skipping dialysis sessions. These aspects are important in the management of peritoneal dialysis but do not outweigh the critical need for regular dialysis sessions to prevent complications.

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