a client with type 1 diabetes mellitus has a blood glucose level of 620 mgdl after the nurse calls the physician to report the finding and monitors th
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HESI RN

Evolve HESI Medical Surgical Practice Exam

1. A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus has a blood glucose level of 620 mg/dL. After the nurse calls the physician to report the finding and monitors the client closely for:

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the scenario described, a client with a blood glucose level of 620 mg/dL and type 1 diabetes mellitus is at risk of developing metabolic acidosis. In type 1 diabetes, the lack of sufficient circulating insulin leads to an increase in blood glucose levels. As the body cells utilize all available glucose, the breakdown of fats for energy results in the production of ketones, leading to metabolic acidosis. Metabolic alkalosis, respiratory acidosis, and respiratory alkalosis are not typically associated with uncontrolled type 1 diabetes. Metabolic alkalosis is more commonly linked to conditions such as vomiting or excessive diuretic use, while respiratory acidosis and respiratory alkalosis are related to respiratory system imbalances in carbon dioxide levels.

2. A client with stress incontinence is being taught about pelvic muscle exercises. Which statements should be included by the nurse? (Select all that apply.)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct statements to include when teaching a client with stress incontinence about pelvic muscle exercises are that starting and stopping the urine stream involve using pelvic muscles and that tightening pelvic muscles for a slow count of 10 and then relaxing for a slow count of 10 can help strengthen them. It is essential to highlight that pelvic muscle exercises can be performed in various positions, including lying down, sitting up, and standing. This variety in positions helps engage the muscles effectively. Performing these exercises 15 times in each position can aid in strengthening the pelvic floor muscles. Consistent exercise over several weeks typically leads to improved control over urine leakage. Choice C is incorrect because pelvic muscle exercises can be performed in different positions and are not limited to sitting upright with feet on the floor.

3. After teaching a client with renal cancer who is prescribed temsirolimus (Torisel), the nurse assesses the client’s understanding. Which statement made by the client indicates a correct understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Temsirolimus, also known as Torisel, is administered as a weekly intravenous infusion. This medication blocks protein needed for cell division, inhibiting cell cycle progression. It is not taken orally, so there is no need to take it with food or water. Keeping the weekly infusion center appointment is crucial for the client to receive the prescribed treatment effectively. Choice A is incorrect as temsirolimus is not taken with food or water. Choice C is incorrect because there is no need to limit the intake of green leafy vegetables while on this medication. Choice D is incorrect as having an infection or feeling ill does not prohibit the use of temsirolimus.

4. To help minimize the risk of postoperative respiratory complications after a hypophysectomy, during preoperative teaching, the nurse should instruct the client how to:

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client on how to take deep breaths. Deep breathing exercises are essential in preventing postoperative respiratory complications like atelectasis by promoting lung expansion. Using incentive spirometry is a more specific and advanced method of promoting deep breathing and lung expansion, making it a better choice than just turning in bed. While turning in bed may help with overall comfort and positioning, it is not as directly related to respiratory complications as deep breathing exercises. Coughing, although important for clearing secretions, is not as effective in preventing atelectasis as deep breathing exercises.

5. The nurse is preparing to give a dose of a cephalosporin medication to a patient who has been receiving the antibiotic for 2 weeks. The nurse notes ulcers on the patient’s tongue and buccal mucosa. Which action will the nurse take?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse should report a possible superinfection side effect of the cephalosporin to the physician as the patient's symptoms may indicate a superinfection that requires treatment. Holding the drug is not necessary unless directed by the provider. Culturing the lesions is not indicated for this situation. There is no evidence to suggest impending anaphylaxis based on the patient's symptoms.

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