Nursing Elites

1. A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus has a blood glucose level of 620 mg/dL. After the nurse calls the physician to report the finding and monitors the client closely for:

• A. Metabolic acidosis
• B. Metabolic alkalosis
• C. Respiratory acidosis
• D. Respiratory alkalosis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the scenario described, a client with a blood glucose level of 620 mg/dL and type 1 diabetes mellitus is at risk of developing metabolic acidosis. In type 1 diabetes, the lack of sufficient circulating insulin leads to an increase in blood glucose levels. As the body cells utilize all available glucose, the breakdown of fats for energy results in the production of ketones, leading to metabolic acidosis. Metabolic alkalosis, respiratory acidosis, and respiratory alkalosis are not typically associated with uncontrolled type 1 diabetes. Metabolic alkalosis is more commonly linked to conditions such as vomiting or excessive diuretic use, while respiratory acidosis and respiratory alkalosis are related to respiratory system imbalances in carbon dioxide levels.

2. A client has a urine specific gravity of 1.040. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Obtain a urine culture and sensitivity.
• B. Place the client on restricted fluids.
• C. Assess the client’s creatinine level.
• D. Increase the client’s fluid intake.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A urine specific gravity of 1.040 is higher than the normal range (1.005 to 1.030) and can indicate dehydration, decreased kidney blood flow, or the presence of antidiuretic hormone. In this situation, the priority action should be to increase the client's fluid intake to address the high specific gravity. Obtaining a urine culture, placing the client on restricted fluids, or assessing the creatinine level would not directly address the underlying issue of high urine specific gravity caused by dehydration or other factors.

3. The nurse is caring for a newly admitted patient who will receive digoxin to treat a cardiac dysrhythmia. The patient takes hydrochlorothiazide (HydroDIURIL) and reports regular use of over-the-counter laxatives. Before administering the first dose of digoxin, the nurse will review the patient’s electrolytes with careful attention to the levels of which electrolytes?

• A. Calcium and magnesium
• B. Sodium and calcium
• C. Potassium and chloride
• D. Potassium and magnesium

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Before administering digoxin, the nurse must review the patient's electrolyte levels, focusing on potassium and magnesium. Hypomagnesemia, similar to hypokalemia, can enhance the action of digitalis and lead to digitalis toxicity. Laxatives and diuretics, like hydrochlorothiazide, can deplete both potassium and magnesium. Therefore, monitoring these electrolytes is crucial to prevent potential adverse effects associated with digoxin therapy. Choice A (Calcium and magnesium) is incorrect because calcium levels are not specifically mentioned as crucial for digoxin therapy. Choice B (Sodium and calcium) is incorrect as sodium is not typically monitored in relation to digoxin therapy. Choice C (Potassium and chloride) is incorrect because although potassium is vital, chloride is not typically associated with digoxin therapy.

4. A client with gouty arthritis reports tenderness and swelling of the right ankle and great toe. The nurse observes the area of inflammation extends above the ankle. The client receives prescriptions for colchicine and indomethacin. Which instruction should the nurse include in the discharge teaching?

• A. Eat high-protein foods to achieve ideal body weight
• B. Drink at least 8 cups (1920mL) of water per day
• C. Use an electric heating pad when pain is at its worst
• D. Encourage active range of motion to prevent stiffness

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to drink at least 8 cups (1920mL) of water per day. Adequate hydration helps to prevent the formation of uric acid crystals, which can exacerbate gout symptoms. Choice A is incorrect because while maintaining a healthy weight is important, it doesn't directly address gout management. Choice C is incorrect because using an electric heating pad can worsen inflammation. Choice D is incorrect because active range of motion may exacerbate pain and inflammation in the affected joints.

5. What is the correct procedure for performing an ophthalmoscopic examination on a client's right retina?

• A. Instruct the client to focus on a distant object behind the examiner and not move their eyes during the exam.
• B. Set the ophthalmoscope on the plus 2 to 3 lens and hold it in front of the examiner's right eye.
• C. From a distance of 12 to 15 inches and slightly to the side, shine the light into the client's pupil.
• D. For optimal visualization, keep the ophthalmoscope at least 3 inches from the client's eye.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During an ophthalmoscopic examination, the client should focus on a distant object behind the examiner to dilate the pupil, and the examiner should stand at a distance of 12-15 inches away and slightly to the side. This angle allows for better visualization of the retina. Holding the ophthalmoscope firmly against the examiner's face and shining the light into the client's pupil helps examine the retina effectively. Choice A is incorrect because the client should look at a distant object, not the examiner's nose. Choice B is incorrect as the ophthalmoscope should be directed towards the client's eye, not the examiner's eye. Choice D is incorrect because keeping the ophthalmoscope at least 3 inches away may not provide an optimal view of the retina.

Similar Questions