HESI RN
HESI Pharmacology Practice Exam
1. A nurse preparing a client for surgery reviews the client's medication record. The client is to be nothing per mouth (NPO) after midnight. Which of the following medications, if noted on the client's record, should the nurse question?
- A. Cyclobenzaprine (Flexeril)
- B. Alendronate (Fosamax)
- C. Allopurinol (Zyloprim)
- D. Prednisone
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Prednisone is a corticosteroid that can cause adrenal atrophy, reducing the body's ability to withstand stress. During surgery, the dosage may need to be adjusted due to its impact on the body's stress response. Choices A, B, and C are not typically contraindicated before surgery and do not have the same potential impact on the body's stress response.
2. A healthcare provider has written a prescription for ranitidine (Zantac), once daily. When should the nurse schedule the medication?
- A. At bedtime
- B. After lunch
- C. With supper
- D. Before breakfast
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: At bedtime. Ranitidine should be scheduled at bedtime because it provides a prolonged effect and offers the greatest protection of the gastric mucosa. Administering it at this time helps in managing nocturnal acid breakthrough and providing relief during the night.
3. A client has been started on long-term therapy with rifampin (Rifadin). A nurse teaches the client that the medication:
- A. Should always be taken with food or antacids
- B. Should be double-dosed if one dose is forgotten
- C. Causes orange discoloration of sweat, tears, urine, and feces
- D. May not be discontinued independently if symptoms are gone in 3 months
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Rifampin causes orange-red discoloration of body secretions, including sweat, tears, urine, and feces. It can also permanently stain soft contact lenses. It is essential to take rifampin exactly as directed and not discontinue it without consulting the healthcare provider.
4. A client has a prescription for albuterol (Proventil HFA) (two puffs) and beclomethasone dipropionate (Qvar) (nasal inhalation, two puffs) by metered-dose inhaler. The medications are to be administered by the nurse by giving the:
- A. Albuterol first and then the beclomethasone dipropionate
- B. Beclomethasone dipropionate first and then the albuterol
- C. Alternating a single puff of each, beginning with the albuterol
- D. Alternating a single puff of each, beginning with the beclomethasone dipropionate
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Albuterol, as a bronchodilator, should be administered first to help open up the airways, followed by beclomethasone dipropionate to reduce inflammation in the airways. This sequence ensures optimal therapeutic effects of the medications.
5. Sildenafil (Viagra) is prescribed to treat a client with erectile dysfunction. A nurse reviews the client's medical record and would question the prescription if which of the following is noted in the client's history?
- A. Neuralgia
- B. Insomnia
- C. Use of nitroglycerin
- D. Use of multivitamins
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Sildenafil (Viagra) enhances the vasodilating effect of nitric oxide and is contraindicated with the concurrent use of organic nitrates and nitroglycerin. Using nitroglycerin together with Viagra can lead to severe hypotension and cardiovascular collapse, making it unsafe to combine both medications.
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