Nursing Elites

1. A nurse preparing a client for surgery reviews the client's medication record. The client is to be nothing per mouth (NPO) after midnight. Which of the following medications, if noted on the client's record, should the nurse question?

• A. Cyclobenzaprine (Flexeril)
• B. Alendronate (Fosamax)
• C. Allopurinol (Zyloprim)
• D. Prednisone

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Prednisone is a corticosteroid that can cause adrenal atrophy, reducing the body's ability to withstand stress. During surgery, the dosage may need to be adjusted due to its impact on the body's stress response. Choices A, B, and C are not typically contraindicated before surgery and do not have the same potential impact on the body's stress response.

2. Tamoxifen is prescribed for the client with metastatic breast carcinoma. The nurse understands that the primary action of this medication is to:

• A. Increase DNA and RNA synthesis.
• B. Promote the biosynthesis of nucleic acids.
• C. Increase estrogen concentration and estrogen response.
• D. Compete with estradiol for binding to estrogen in tissues containing high concentrations of receptors.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The primary action of tamoxifen, an antineoplastic medication used in metastatic breast carcinoma, is to compete with estradiol for binding to estrogen receptors in tissues with high receptor concentrations. By doing so, tamoxifen reduces DNA synthesis and estrogen response, leading to its therapeutic effect in inhibiting the growth of estrogen-sensitive breast cancer cells.

3. A healthcare professional prepares to administer sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate) to a client. Before administering the medication, the professional reviews the action of the medication and understands that it:

• A. Releases bicarbonate in exchange for primarily sodium ions
• B. Releases sodium ions in exchange for primarily potassium ions
• C. Releases potassium ions in exchange for primarily sodium ions
• D. Releases sodium ions in exchange for primarily bicarbonate ions

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Sodium polystyrene sulfonate, such as Kayexalate, is a cation exchange resin that functions by releasing sodium ions in exchange for primarily potassium ions. This medication is commonly used to treat hyperkalemia, a condition characterized by elevated levels of potassium in the blood.

4. Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor to determine the effectiveness of heparin therapy for a client with deep vein thrombosis?

• A. Platelet count
• B. Prothrombin time (PT)
• C. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• D. Hemoglobin and hematocrit

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is the specific laboratory test used to monitor the effectiveness of heparin therapy in patients with deep vein thrombosis. It measures the time it takes for blood to clot and is crucial in assessing the therapeutic range of heparin. Platelet count, prothrombin time (PT), and hemoglobin and hematocrit levels are important parameters in assessing coagulation and blood status but do not directly indicate the effectiveness of heparin therapy.

5. A client is receiving intravenous gentamicin (Garamycin). Which of the following findings should prompt the nurse to notify the healthcare provider immediately?

• A. Nausea
• B. Hearing loss
• C. Headache
• D. Diarrhea

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Gentamicin (Garamycin) is an aminoglycoside antibiotic known to cause ototoxicity, which can manifest as hearing loss. Hearing loss is a serious adverse effect that should be reported promptly to the healthcare provider to prevent further complications or adjust the treatment regimen. Nausea, headache, and diarrhea are common side effects of gentamicin but are not as severe or urgent as hearing loss in this context.

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