Nursing Elites

1. A nurse reinforces discharge instructions to a postoperative client who is taking warfarin sodium (Coumadin). Which statement, if made by the client, reflects the need for further teaching?

• A. I will take my pills every day at the same time.
• B. I will be certain to avoid alcohol consumption.
• C. I have already called my family to pick up a Medic-Alert bracelet.
• D. I will take Ecotrin (enteric-coated aspirin) for my headaches because it is coated.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Ecotrin is an aspirin-containing product and should be avoided. Clients should avoid alcohol consumption, take prescribed medication at the same time each day, and use a Medic-Alert bracelet for emergency information.

2. A client is to begin a 6-month course of therapy with isoniazid (INH). A nurse plans to teach the client to:

• A. Avoid drinking alcohol.
• B. Report yellow eyes or skin immediately.
• C. Avoid Swiss or aged cheeses.
• D. Avoid vitamin supplements during therapy.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client is on isoniazid (INH) therapy, they should be instructed to report any signs of hepatitis, such as yellowing of the eyes or skin, immediately. Alcohol consumption should be avoided during INH therapy due to the risk of hepatotoxicity. Foods high in tyramine, such as Swiss or aged cheeses, should also be avoided to prevent adverse reactions. Additionally, while on INH therapy, it is essential to avoid vitamin supplements containing pyridoxine (vitamin B6) to prevent potential interactions.

3. A client with diabetes mellitus is prescribed prednisone for an acute exacerbation of asthma. Which of the following should the nurse include in the client's teaching plan?

• A. Increase the dose of insulin while taking prednisone.
• B. Take the prednisone with food.
• C. Monitor blood glucose levels closely.
• D. Do not discontinue prednisone abruptly.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor blood glucose levels closely. Prednisone can elevate blood glucose levels, necessitating close monitoring. Adjusting the insulin dose may be necessary, but this should be managed by a healthcare provider. Prednisone should be taken with food to reduce gastrointestinal discomfort and should not be stopped suddenly to prevent adverse effects.

4. The home health care nurse is visiting a client who was recently diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus. The client is prescribed repaglinide (Prandin) and metformin (Glucophage) and asks the nurse to explain these medications. The nurse should reinforce which instructions to the client? Select one that doesn't apply.

• A. Diarrhea can occur secondary to the metformin.
• B. The repaglinide is not taken if a meal is skipped.
• C. The repaglinide is taken 30 minutes before eating.
• D. Nausea and vomiting

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Repaglinide is a rapid-acting oral hypoglycemic that should be taken before meals and withheld if the client does not eat. Hypoglycemia is a side effect of repaglinide, so carrying a simple sugar is essential. Metformin decreases hepatic glucose production and can cause diarrhea. Muscle pain may occur as an adverse effect and should be reported to the HCP.

5. Nalidixic acid (NegGram) is prescribed for a client with a urinary tract infection. On review of the client's record, the nurse notes that the client is taking warfarin sodium (Coumadin) daily. Which prescription should the nurse anticipate for this client?

• A. Discontinuation of warfarin sodium (Coumadin)
• B. A decrease in the warfarin sodium (Coumadin) dosage
• C. An increase in the warfarin sodium (Coumadin) dosage
• D. A decrease in the usual dose of nalidixic acid (NegGram)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Nalidixic acid can intensify the effects of oral anticoagulants by displacing these agents from binding sites on plasma proteins. When an oral anticoagulant, like warfarin sodium (Coumadin), is combined with nalidixic acid, a decrease in the anticoagulant dosage may be necessary to avoid excessive anticoagulation and potential bleeding risks. Therefore, the correct action for the nurse to anticipate in this situation is a decrease in the warfarin sodium (Coumadin) dosage. Choice A is incorrect because discontinuing warfarin sodium abruptly can lead to thrombosis or embolism. Choice C is incorrect as increasing the warfarin sodium dosage can potentiate the anticoagulant effect, leading to bleeding complications. Choice D is incorrect as reducing the dose of nalidixic acid would not directly address the interaction with warfarin sodium.

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