NCLEX-PN
NCLEX PN Test Bank
1. A nurse is watching as a new nurse employee administers an intramuscular (IM) injection in a client's deltoid muscle. The nurse determines that the new employee is performing the procedure correctly if the new employee uses which technique?
- A. Administers the injection 2 inches below the acromion process
- B. Positions the client with the deltoid muscle exposed
- C. Administers the injection in the thigh
- D. Places the client in the Sims position
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When administering an intramuscular injection in the deltoid muscle, the correct technique involves administering the injection 2 inches below the acromion process, which is the bony structure on top of the shoulder blade. This location ensures safe and effective administration. Administering the injection in the thigh (vastus lateralis or rectus femoris muscle) is not appropriate for a deltoid injection as the deltoid muscle is located in the upper arm. The Sims position is not the correct position for a deltoid muscle injection. While positioning the client with the deltoid muscle exposed allows for proper access and visualization, the critical aspect for a correct deltoid injection is the accurate injection site, 2 inches below the acromion process.
2. Which of the following tasks are appropriate for an LPN to perform?
- A. Adjusting the cervical traction device of a 68-year-old client as instructed by the charge nurse.
- B. performing operation on a woman in labour
- C. Assessing a 36-year-old man newly admitted for chest pain.
- D. Obtaining an occult blood sample from a 16-year-old client with ulcerative colitis.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Tasks appropriate for an LPN to perform include teaching, obtaining samples, and documenting. LPNs can educate clients on care practices, such as teaching a new mother how to care for her baby. Obtaining samples, like an occult blood sample, falls within the scope of an LPN's responsibilities. Assessments, especially initial assessments, should be conducted by a registered nurse or physician, making option C incorrect. Adjusting devices like a cervical traction device should be done based on direct orders from prescribing providers, not charge nurses, making option A inappropriate for an LPN's role.
3. Who is responsible for obtaining the signature from the client on the informed consent?
- A. the staff nurse
- B. the charge nurse
- C. the LPN
- D. the physician
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is the physician. It is the physician's responsibility to ensure that the client provides informed consent by obtaining their signature. While nurses play a crucial role in the healthcare team, their responsibility lies in verifying that the consent process has been completed correctly and advocating for the client. The staff nurse, charge nurse, and LPN do not have the authority to obtain the client's signature on the informed consent form, as this is within the scope of practice of the physician.
4. How does cancer affect pain tolerance in elderly clients?
- A. Remain constant.
- B. Decrease.
- C. Increase.
- D. Cancer has no impact on pain tolerance in elderly clients.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Pain tolerance in elderly clients with cancer is likely to decrease due to factors such as diminished adaptative capacity, increased physical discomfort, and the psychological impact of the disease. Cancer is known to cause various physical and emotional stressors that can lower the pain threshold, leading to a decrease in pain tolerance. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because cancer and its associated effects typically result in a decrease in pain tolerance rather than remaining constant, increasing, or having no impact.
5. The healthcare provider sustains a needle puncture that requires HIV prophylaxis. Which of the following medication regimens should be used?
- A. an antibiotic such as Metronidazole and a protease inhibitor (Saquinavir)
- B. two non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors
- C. one protease inhibitor such as Nelfinavir
- D. two protease inhibitors
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In the scenario of a needle puncture requiring HIV prophylaxis, the CDC recommends initiating treatment with two non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors, unless there is drug resistance. This regimen is preferred over other options such as a single protease inhibitor or two protease inhibitors due to its effectiveness and safety profile in this specific context. Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors are commonly used in post-exposure prophylaxis due to their activity against HIV and lower risk of resistance development compared to other antiretroviral drug classes.
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