Nursing Elites

1. A client is being educated about the use of sertraline (Zoloft) for depression. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I should take the medication with a high-protein meal.
• B. I may experience dizziness when getting up quickly.
• C. I might notice a decrease in my sex drive.
• D. I should report any thoughts of self-harm to my healthcare provider.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The statement 'I should take the medication with a high-protein meal' indicates a need for further teaching as sertraline (Zoloft) should not be taken with a high-protein meal due to potential interference with medication absorption. Choices B, C, and D are correct statements associated with the use of sertraline for depression. It is common to experience dizziness when quickly getting up, notice a decrease in sex drive, and important to report any thoughts of self-harm to the healthcare provider while on this medication.

2. Cycloserine (Seromycin) is added to the medication regimen for a client with tuberculosis. Which of the following would the nurse include in the client-teaching plan regarding this medication?

• A. To take the medication after meals
• B. To return to the clinic weekly for serum drug-level testing
• C. To call the health care provider (HCP) if a skin rash occurs
• D. To restrict alcohol intake with this medication

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Cycloserine requires weekly serum drug level determinations to monitor for neurotoxicity. The medication must be taken after meals, and the client should avoid alcohol. Additionally, the client should report any signs of skin rash or central nervous system toxicity to the healthcare provider.

3. A client is taking phenytoin (Dilantin) for seizure control, and a sample for a serum drug level is drawn. Which of the following indicates a therapeutic serum drug range?

• A. 5 to 10 mcg/mL
• B. 10 to 20 mcg/mL
• C. 20 to 30 mcg/mL
• D. 30 to 40 mcg/mL

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct therapeutic serum drug level range for phenytoin (Dilantin) is 10 to 20 mcg/mL. This range is considered optimal for seizure control while minimizing the risk of toxicity. Monitoring drug levels helps ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range for effective treatment.

4. A client is taking propranolol (Inderal LA). Which data collection finding would indicate a potential serious complication associated with propranolol?

• A. The development of complaints of insomnia
• B. The development of audible expiratory wheezes
• C. A baseline blood pressure of 150/80 mm Hg followed by a blood pressure of 138/72 mm Hg after two doses of the medication
• D. A baseline resting heart rate of 88 beats/min followed by a resting heart rate of 72 beats/min after two doses of the medication

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The development of audible expiratory wheezes may indicate a serious adverse reaction, bronchospasm, associated with propranolol. Beta-blockers can trigger bronchospasm, especially in clients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease or asthma. This complication can lead to significant respiratory distress and should be addressed promptly to prevent further complications.

5. A client with angina pectoris is experiencing chest pain that radiates down the left arm. The nurse administers a sublingual nitroglycerin tablet to the client. The client's pain is unrelieved, and the nurse determines that the client needs another nitroglycerin tablet. Which of the following vital signs is most important for the nurse to check before administering the medication?

• A. Temperature
• B. Respirations
• C. Blood pressure
• D. Radial pulse rate

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is checking the client's blood pressure (C) before administering another nitroglycerin tablet. Nitroglycerin can cause hypotension, and monitoring blood pressure is crucial to prevent a sudden drop in blood pressure, especially when giving another dose of nitroglycerin.

Similar Questions