Nursing Elites

1. Tamoxifen is prescribed for the client with metastatic breast carcinoma. The nurse understands that the primary action of this medication is to:

• A. Increase DNA and RNA synthesis.
• B. Promote the biosynthesis of nucleic acids.
• C. Increase estrogen concentration and estrogen response.
• D. Compete with estradiol for binding to estrogen in tissues containing high concentrations of receptors.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The primary action of tamoxifen, an antineoplastic medication used in metastatic breast carcinoma, is to compete with estradiol for binding to estrogen receptors in tissues with high receptor concentrations. By doing so, tamoxifen reduces DNA synthesis and estrogen response, leading to its therapeutic effect in inhibiting the growth of estrogen-sensitive breast cancer cells.

2. Nalidixic acid (NegGram) is prescribed for a client with a urinary tract infection. On review of the client's record, the nurse notes that the client is taking warfarin sodium (Coumadin) daily. Which prescription should the nurse anticipate for this client?

• A. Discontinuation of warfarin sodium (Coumadin)
• B. A decrease in the warfarin sodium (Coumadin) dosage
• C. An increase in the warfarin sodium (Coumadin) dosage
• D. A decrease in the usual dose of nalidixic acid (NegGram)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Nalidixic acid can intensify the effects of oral anticoagulants by displacing these agents from binding sites on plasma proteins. When an oral anticoagulant, like warfarin sodium (Coumadin), is combined with nalidixic acid, a decrease in the anticoagulant dosage may be necessary to avoid excessive anticoagulation and potential bleeding risks. Therefore, the correct action for the nurse to anticipate in this situation is a decrease in the warfarin sodium (Coumadin) dosage. Choice A is incorrect because discontinuing warfarin sodium abruptly can lead to thrombosis or embolism. Choice C is incorrect as increasing the warfarin sodium dosage can potentiate the anticoagulant effect, leading to bleeding complications. Choice D is incorrect as reducing the dose of nalidixic acid would not directly address the interaction with warfarin sodium.

3. A client is taking docusate sodium (Colace). The nurse monitors which of the following to determine whether the client is experiencing a therapeutic effect from this medication?

• A. Abdominal pain
• B. Reduction in steatorrhea
• C. Hematest-negative stools
• D. Regular bowel movements

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The therapeutic effect of docusate sodium (Colace) is to soften stools and promote regular bowel movements, making option D the correct choice. Monitoring for regular bowel movements would indicate that the medication is working as intended by relieving or preventing constipation. Options A, B, and C are not directly related to the therapeutic effect of docusate sodium. Abdominal pain (option A) is a symptom that might indicate a problem rather than a therapeutic effect. Reduction in steatorrhea (option B) and Hematest-negative stools (option C) are not specific outcomes associated with docusate sodium.

4. While assisting in caring for a pregnant client receiving intravenous magnesium sulfate for preeclampsia management, a nurse notes the client's absent deep tendon reflexes. What determination should the nurse make based on this data?

• A. The magnesium sulfate is effective.
• B. The infusion rate needs to be increased.
• C. The client is experiencing cerebral edema.
• D. The client is experiencing magnesium toxicity.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a pregnant client receiving intravenous magnesium sulfate for preeclampsia management exhibits absent deep tendon reflexes, this indicates magnesium toxicity. Magnesium toxicity can occur as a complication of magnesium sulfate therapy, leading to suppressed reflexes. It is crucial for the nurse to recognize this sign promptly and report it to prevent further complications or harm to the client.

5. A client is receiving instructions from a healthcare provider about intranasal desmopressin acetate (DDAVP). The healthcare provider explains that which of the following is a side effect of the medication?

• A. Headache
• B. Vulval pain
• C. Runny nose
• D. Flushed skin

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Intranasal desmopressin can cause a runny or stuffy nose as a side effect due to its mode of administration through the nasal passages.

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