Nursing Elites

1. Tamoxifen is prescribed for the client with metastatic breast carcinoma. The nurse understands that the primary action of this medication is to:

• A. Increase DNA and RNA synthesis.
• B. Promote the biosynthesis of nucleic acids.
• C. Increase estrogen concentration and estrogen response.
• D. Compete with estradiol for binding to estrogen in tissues containing high concentrations of receptors.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The primary action of tamoxifen, an antineoplastic medication used in metastatic breast carcinoma, is to compete with estradiol for binding to estrogen receptors in tissues with high receptor concentrations. By doing so, tamoxifen reduces DNA synthesis and estrogen response, leading to its therapeutic effect in inhibiting the growth of estrogen-sensitive breast cancer cells.

2. A client has been taking isoniazid (INH) for 2 months. The client complains to a nurse about numbness, paresthesias, and tingling in the extremities. The nurse interprets that the client is experiencing:

• A. Hypercalcemia
• B. Peripheral neuritis
• C. Small blood vessel spasm
• D. Impaired peripheral circulation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The client's symptoms of numbness, paresthesias, and tingling in the extremities indicate peripheral neuritis, a common side effect of isoniazid (INH). This condition can be managed by supplementing with pyridoxine (vitamin B6) to minimize the symptoms.

3. A client with diabetes mellitus is prescribed prednisone for an acute exacerbation of asthma. Which of the following should the nurse include in the client's teaching plan?

• A. Increase the dose of insulin while taking prednisone.
• B. Take the prednisone with food.
• C. Monitor blood glucose levels closely.
• D. Do not discontinue prednisone abruptly.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor blood glucose levels closely. Prednisone can elevate blood glucose levels, necessitating close monitoring. Adjusting the insulin dose may be necessary, but this should be managed by a healthcare provider. Prednisone should be taken with food to reduce gastrointestinal discomfort and should not be stopped suddenly to prevent adverse effects.

4. The client with non-Hodgkin's lymphoma is receiving daunorubicin (DaunoXome). Which of the following would indicate to the nurse that the client is experiencing a toxic effect related to the medication?

• A. Fever
• B. Diarrhea
• C. Complaints of nausea and vomiting
• D. Crackles on auscultation of the lungs

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Crackles on auscultation of the lungs would indicate a toxic effect related to daunorubicin, known to cause cardiotoxicity. Cardiotoxicity can manifest as heart failure, abnormal ECG findings, or cardiomyopathy. It is crucial for the nurse to monitor for signs of cardiotoxicity to ensure timely intervention and prevent further complications. Fever, diarrhea, and complaints of nausea and vomiting are common side effects of daunorubicin but do not specifically indicate a toxic effect like cardiotoxicity.

5. Nalidixic acid (NegGram) is prescribed for a client with a urinary tract infection. On review of the client's record, the nurse notes that the client is taking warfarin sodium (Coumadin) daily. Which prescription should the nurse anticipate for this client?

• A. Discontinuation of warfarin sodium (Coumadin)
• B. A decrease in the warfarin sodium (Coumadin) dosage
• C. An increase in the warfarin sodium (Coumadin) dosage
• D. A decrease in the usual dose of nalidixic acid (NegGram)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Nalidixic acid can intensify the effects of oral anticoagulants by displacing these agents from binding sites on plasma proteins. When an oral anticoagulant, like warfarin sodium (Coumadin), is combined with nalidixic acid, a decrease in the anticoagulant dosage may be necessary to avoid excessive anticoagulation and potential bleeding risks. Therefore, the correct action for the nurse to anticipate in this situation is a decrease in the warfarin sodium (Coumadin) dosage. Choice A is incorrect because discontinuing warfarin sodium abruptly can lead to thrombosis or embolism. Choice C is incorrect as increasing the warfarin sodium dosage can potentiate the anticoagulant effect, leading to bleeding complications. Choice D is incorrect as reducing the dose of nalidixic acid would not directly address the interaction with warfarin sodium.

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