HESI RN
HESI Nutrition Proctored Exam Quizlet
1. A client who has received treatment for kidney stones should be reminded to increase intake of which of the following?
- A. Tea
- B. Sodium
- C. Water
- D. Protein
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Water. Increasing water intake helps prevent the formation of new kidney stones by diluting the urine. Tea (Choice A) contains oxalates, which can contribute to kidney stone formation. Sodium (Choice B) should be limited to prevent the risk of certain types of kidney stones. Protein (Choice D) intake should be moderate as excessive protein consumption may increase the risk of kidney stones. Therefore, advising the client to increase water intake is the most appropriate recommendation to prevent the recurrence of kidney stones.
2. A client receiving filgrastim (Neupogen) for neutropenia is learning about compromised host precautions. The selection of which lunch suggests the client has learned about necessary dietary changes?
- A. grilled chicken sandwich and skim milk
- B. roast beef, mashed potatoes, and green beans
- C. peanut butter sandwich, banana, and iced tea
- D. barbecue beef, baked beans, and cole slaw
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Roast beef, mashed potatoes, and green beans are suitable choices for clients with neutropenia because they are considered safe options that help avoid potential sources of infection. Grilled chicken, peanut butter, and barbecue beef may carry a higher risk of bacterial contamination, which could be harmful to a client with compromised immunity.
3. A client who is pregnant and has hyperemesis gravidarum is being taught about nutrition at home by a nurse. Which of the following statements indicate that the client understands the teachings?
- A. I will drink water with my meals.
- B. I will eat every 6 hours throughout the day.
- C. I will eat crackers before I get out of bed in the morning.
- D. I will limit my protein intake.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Eating crackers before getting out of bed can help manage nausea associated with hyperemesis gravidarum. Choice A is incorrect because drinking water with meals may exacerbate nausea. Choice B is incorrect as eating every 6 hours may not be frequent enough to combat nausea and vomiting. Choice D is incorrect because protein intake should not be limited during pregnancy, especially in cases of hyperemesis gravidarum.
4. A client has viral pneumonia affecting 2/3 of the right lung. What would be the best position to teach the client to lie in every other hour during the first 12 hours after admission?
- A. Side-lying on the left with the head elevated 10 degrees
- B. Side-lying on the left with the head elevated 35 degrees
- C. Side-lying on the right with the head elevated 10 degrees
- D. Side-lying on the right with the head elevated 35 degrees
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct position for a client with viral pneumonia affecting 2/3 of the right lung is side-lying on the left with the head elevated 10 degrees. This position helps maximize lung expansion and oxygenation in cases of pneumonia affecting the right lung. Choice B is incorrect as excessive elevation can put pressure on the lung, and choices C and D are incorrect as side-lying on the right would not be beneficial for a client with pneumonia in the right lung.
5. The nurse is caring for a client in atrial fibrillation. The atrial heart rate is 250, and the ventricular rate is controlled at 75. Which of the following findings is cause for the most concern?
- A. Diminished bowel sounds
- B. Loss of appetite
- C. A cold, pale lower leg
- D. Tachypnea
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A cold, pale lower leg is the most concerning finding as it indicates poor blood flow, potentially suggesting a serious circulatory problem that requires immediate attention. Diminished bowel sounds, loss of appetite, and tachypnea may be relevant but are not as indicative of a critical circulatory issue as a cold, pale lower leg.
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