HESI RN
HESI Nutrition Proctored Exam Quizlet
1. The nurse is caring for a client undergoing the placement of a central venous catheter line. Which of the following would require the nurse's immediate attention?
- A. Pallor
- B. Increased temperature
- C. Dyspnea
- D. Involuntary muscle spasms
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Dyspnea indicates a potential complication such as pneumothorax or incorrect catheter placement, requiring immediate attention. Pallor may indicate anemia but is not as urgent as dyspnea in this context. Increased temperature could be a sign of infection but is not as critical as respiratory distress. Involuntary muscle spasms are not directly related to central venous catheter placement and are of lower priority compared to respiratory issues.
2. A client is receiving treatment for hypothyroidism. Which of these assessments would be most concerning to the nurse?
- A. Heart rate of 70 beats per minute
- B. Blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg
- C. Respiratory rate of 16 breaths per minute
- D. Temperature of 98.6 degrees Fahrenheit
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg would be most concerning to the nurse because changes in blood pressure can indicate worsening hypothyroidism, potentially leading to complications such as myxedema coma. A heart rate of 70 beats per minute, a respiratory rate of 16 breaths per minute, and a temperature of 98.6 degrees Fahrenheit are within normal ranges and not typically directly associated with hypothyroidism complications.
3. A client is being maintained on heparin therapy for deep vein thrombosis. The nurse must closely monitor which of the following laboratory values?
- A. Bleeding time
- B. Platelet count
- C. Activated PTT
- D. Clotting time
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Activated PTT is the correct lab value to monitor for clients on heparin therapy. Activated PTT (partial thromboplastin time) helps assess the effectiveness of heparin therapy by measuring the time it takes for blood to clot. Monitoring activated PTT ensures that the client is within the therapeutic range of heparin to prevent both clotting and bleeding complications. Bleeding time (Choice A) and platelet count (Choice B) are not specific indicators of heparin therapy effectiveness. Clotting time (Choice D) is not as sensitive as activated PTT in monitoring heparin therapy.
4. During a physical assessment on a client who just had an endotracheal tube inserted, which finding would call for immediate action by the nurse?
- A. Breath sounds are auscultated bilaterally
- B. Mist is visible in the T-Piece
- C. Pulse oximetry of 88%
- D. Client is unable to speak
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A pulse oximetry reading of 88% indicates hypoxemia, which requires immediate intervention to ensure adequate oxygenation. In this scenario, the priority is to address the low oxygen saturation to prevent further complications. Auscultation of bilateral breath sounds is a positive finding as it indicates air entry into both lungs. Mist in the T-piece is expected in clients with an endotracheal tube, and the inability to speak is common due to the tube's placement.
5. A 14-year-old with a history of sickle cell disease is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of vaso-occlusive crisis. Which statement by the client would be most indicative of the etiology of this crisis?
- A. I knew this would happen. I've been eating too much red meat lately.
- B. I really enjoyed my fishing trip yesterday. I caught 2 fish.
- C. I have really been working hard practicing with the debate team at school.
- D. I went to the healthcare provider last week for a cold, and I have gotten worse.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because a recent illness, such as a cold, can trigger a vaso-occlusive crisis in sickle cell disease. This crisis is often precipitated by infections or other illnesses that cause a systemic inflammatory response, leading to vaso-occlusion. Choices A, B, and C do not directly relate to the etiology of a vaso-occlusive crisis in sickle cell disease, making them incorrect.
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