HESI RN
HESI Pharmacology Practice Exam
1. When administering hydrochlorothiazide (HydroDIURIL) to a client, the nurse should be aware of which of the following concerns?
- A. Hypouricemia, hyperkalemia
- B. Increased risk of osteoporosis
- C. Hypokalemia, hyperglycemia, sulfa allergy
- D. Hyperkalemia, hypoglycemia, penicillin allergy
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Hydrochlorothiazide is a thiazide diuretic, which can lead to hypokalemia and hyperglycemia. It is also associated with hypercalcemia, hyperlipidemia, and hyperuricemia. Being a sulfa-based medication, individuals with a sulfa allergy are at risk for an allergic reaction when taking hydrochlorothiazide. Choice A is incorrect because hydrochlorothiazide can cause hyperkalemia rather than hypouricemia. Choice B is incorrect as there is no direct link between hydrochlorothiazide and an increased risk of osteoporosis. Choice D is incorrect because hypoglycemia and penicillin allergy are not typically associated with hydrochlorothiazide use.
2. An older client recently has been taking cimetidine (Tagamet). The nurse monitors the client for which most frequent central nervous system side effect of this medication?
- A. Tremors
- B. Dizziness
- C. Confusion
- D. Hallucinations
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Older clients are particularly vulnerable to central nervous system side effects of cimetidine. The most frequent side effect is confusion. It is crucial for nurses to be vigilant in monitoring for confusion as it can impact the client's safety and well-being. While tremors, dizziness, and hallucinations are possible side effects, confusion is the most common in older clients taking cimetidine.
3. When monitoring a client for acute toxicity associated with bethanechol chloride (Urecholine), what sign should the nurse check for to indicate toxicity?
- A. Dry skin
- B. Dry mouth
- C. Bradycardia
- D. Signs of dehydration
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bradycardia. Toxicity from bethanechol chloride (Urecholine) can lead to excessive muscarinic stimulation, resulting in manifestations like salivation, sweating, involuntary urination and defecation, bradycardia, and severe hypotension. When facing toxicity, treatment involves supportive measures and administering atropine sulfate subcutaneously or intravenously.
4. A healthcare provider notes that a client is receiving lamivudine (Epivir). The healthcare provider determines that this medication has been prescribed to treat which of the following?
- A. Pancreatitis
- B. Pharyngitis
- C. Tonic-clonic seizures
- D. Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Lamivudine, known by the brand name Epivir, is an antiretroviral medication used in the treatment of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection. This medication helps to inhibit the replication of HIV and improve the immune system function in individuals with HIV. Therefore, the correct answer is option D, Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection.
5. A client is receiving meperidine (Demerol) for pain management. Which assessment finding requires immediate action?
- A. Constipation
- B. Drowsiness
- C. Respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute
- D. Nausea
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute indicates respiratory depression, a severe side effect of meperidine (Demerol) that necessitates immediate intervention to prevent further complications. Constipation, drowsiness, and nausea are common but less urgent side effects that do not pose an immediate life-threatening risk. Respiratory depression can lead to respiratory arrest and must be addressed promptly to ensure the client's safety and well-being.
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